Punjab University M.Ed 2011 question paper with answer keys:
Are you looking for M.Ed 2011 question paper with answer key for the Punjab University ? M.Ed entrance test is conducted every year by Punjab University, Chandigarh. Hereunder the question papers with answer key are provided. Use them for your examination purpose.
M. Ed. Entrance Test-2011
Question Booklet Series : A
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet.
Roll No. In Figures In Words
O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.
Signature of the Candidate :
Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else.
2. Enter the series code of the Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the
corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/ noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so would be expelled from the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent / Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.
Question Booklet No. :
1. The science and theory of knowledge is known as :
(A) Metaphysics (B) Axiology
(C) Epistemology (D) Aesthetics
2. Education aims at :
(A) inciting conflicts in the society (B) strengthening hierarchy in the society
(C) accelerating dissensions in the society (D) wiping out ignorance from the society
3. Self Expression is one of the main aims of education for the protagonists of the philosophy
of :
(A) Naturalism (B) Idealism
(C) Realism (D) Existentialism
4. Informal education of a child commences :
(A) when a child leaves the school after completing his education
(B) the moment a child takes birth
(C) immediately after a child starts playing with her peer group
(D) the moment a child joins the school
5. Indicate which of the following statements explains the nature of culture :
(A) Culture is social inheritance (B) Culture is genetic inheritance
(C) Culture is static (D) Culture is incommunicable
6. Modernization of society means :
(A) ensuring change in material culture exclusively
(B) promoting mechanical adoption of affluent western world legacy
(C) establishing economically developed, rational and enlightened society
(D) advocating through rejection of heritage
7. Indicate the kind of orientation an individual require to adjust with the process of social
change :
(A) Progressive (B) Conformist
(C) Traditionalist (D) Confrontationist
8. Caste is a closed group of society because it :
(A) refuses an identity to the individuals
(B) denies privileges for some members
(C) sidelines the interests of its members
(D) does not allow its members to shift to another caste-group
9. It is believed that values are caught and not taught’, hence the best way of inculcating
values among children is that a teacher :
(A) explains a particular value while narrating stories of great men
(B) remains vigilant on the behaviour of students and keeps a check
(C) himself lives those values and becomes a role model
(D) punishes the wrong doers so that others may become better
10. School is an agency that :
(A) conserves and transmits culture (B) promotes divisions in society
(C) restricts the process of social progress (D) hinders the process of socialization
11. Secularism as enshrined in the Constitution of India does not refer to :
(A) equal respect to all the religions (B) complete ban on all religions by the state
(C) no patronising of any religion by the state (D) scientific and rational disposition
12. A book named ‘Pedagogy of the opressed’ was authored by :
(A) Bertrand Russell (B) Herbert Kohl
(C) John Dewey (D) Paulo Freire
13. Unesco’s Delors Commission report that observed that the ‘task of education is to teach
at one and the same time, the diversity of human race and awareness of the similarities
between and interdependence of all humans’ was published in 1996 under the title :
(A) Learning To Be (B) Learning the Treasure Within
(C) Learning to Know (D) Learning to Do
14. ‘Destiny of India is being shaped in its class-rooms’ was stated by :
(A) Indian Education Commission 1964-66
(B) National Policy on Education, 1986
(C) Secondary Education Commission-1952-53
(D) University Education Commission 1948
15. Full form of GATS under World Trade Organisation is :
(A) Global Agreement on Trade in Services
(B) General Agreement on Trade in Services
(C) Global Arrangement on Trade in Services
(D) General Arrangement on Trade in Services
16. Identify the programme which has become the main vehicle of implementing Right to
Education Act-2010 in India ?
(A) District Primary Education Programme (B) Operation Blackboard
(C) Sarv Shiksha Abhiyan (D) Adult Literacy Programme
17. Learning refers to :
(A) Change in Belief system (B) Change in aptitude
(C) Change in behaviour (D) Change in retention
18. The process of release of emotional energy through self–expression is called :
(A) Sublimation (B) Catharsis
(C) Suprassion (D) Aggression
19. “More frequently a stimulus-response connection occurs, stronger is the resulting association and hence, stronger the learning.” This situation referes to which law of learning ?
(A) Law of readiness (B) Law of effect
(C) Law of exercise (D) Law of association
20. Aptitude refers to :
(A) set of abilities essential for aquiring knowledge and skills
(B) readiness to respond in a pre-determined manner to relevant a stimulus
(C) intellectual ability of an individual
(D) cause of an activity and the result of participation in an activity
21. The learning theory of classical conditioning was propounded by :
(A) E. L. Thorndike (B) B. F. Skinner
(C) J. B. Watson (D) Ivan P. Pavlov
22. The development of personality is determined by :
(A) the heredity of an individual (B) the environment a person lives in
(C) the interaction of heredity and environment (D) the parent-child interaction
23. Psycho-social approach to understand personality was initiated by :
(A) Adler (B) Eyesenck
(C) Erikson (D) Freud
24. When a person makes efforts to cope with the standards, values and needs of society in
order to be accepted by the society, it refers to :
(A) Social Facilitation (B) Social Adjustment
(C) Social Maturity (D) Social Cohesion
25. Indicate the statement that does not hold true about the nature of human development :
(A) Development is always uniform
(B) Development proceeds from generality to specificity
(C) Development is sequential
(D) Development is differential
26. Neonate means :
(A) An abnormal baby (B) An irritable baby
(C) A new born baby (D) An unattended baby
27. A maladjusted person tends to be :
(A) Independent in decision making (B) Shy and showing temper tantrums
(C) Warm and understanding (D) Mature and emotionally balanced
28. Rohit has job offers from two companies and both the offers are very attractive. He has to choose one. Which kind of conflict is he faced with ?
(A) approach- avoidance conflict (B) avoidance -avoidance conflict
(C) no conflict at all (D) approach-approach conflict
29. According to Kohlberg’s theory of moral development the Post-conventional level is the stage when children
(A) simply obey authority figures to avoid being punished
(B) realize that values are some what arbitrary and relative to each society
(C) consider the feeling of others in making moral decisions
(D) make moral decisions as per their instincts
30. Positive transfer of learning means that :
(A) learning of activity makes the learning of another activity easier
(B) previous learning has no effect on the subsequent learning
(C) previous learning overlaps subsequent learning
(D) previous performance puts hinderance in the performance of subsequent task
31. Which of the following is the highest kind of learning in cognitive domain ?
(A) Role learning (B) Concept learning
(C) Problem solving (D) Learning of principles
32. The highest order need in Maslow’s hierarchical order of needs is :
(A) Self esteem (B) Self-actualization
(C) Psychological needs (D) Safety needs
33. The concept of ‘mental age’ in the measurement of intelligence was introduced for the
first time by :
(A) L. M. Terman (B) David Wechsler
(C) Alferd Binet (D) P. E. Vernon
34. Trainable mentally retarded children fall in the intelligence quotient range of :
(A) 90-70 (B) 70-50
(C) 50-35 (D) Below 35
35. Indicate the stage in life when a child experiences spurt in growth resulting into rapid increase in height and weight :
(A) Adolescence (B) Infancy
(C) Late childhood (D) Early childhood
36. Which of the following technique does not belong to behavioural Educational Technology designed to modify teacher’s behaviour ?
(A) Simulated social skill technique (B) Microteaching
(C) Interaction-Analysis Technique (D) Programmed learning
37. Teaching-session in micro-teaching session is stipulated to be of :
(A) 36 minutes (B) 6 minutes
(C) 10 minutes (D) 12 minutes
38. Measurement refers to :
(A) the process where results of a programme’s stated objectives are examined
(B) the process of comparing the outcomes with reference to some standards
(C) assigning numerals to events/objects according to certain rules
(D) the process of undertaking assessment of some programme
39. When an individual produces a single response to a specific question or a problem, it is called :
(A) Divergent thinking (B) Critical thinking
(C) Analytical thinking (D) Convergent thinking
40. Pre-active stage of teaching refers to the process of :
(A) decision making regarding the teaching strategies to be employed
(B) changing the teaching strategies in terms of feedback
(C) deployment of teaching strategies
(D) Contemplating the outcome of teaching activity
41. Equality of educational opportunities means that :
(A) all individuals, regardless of their capabilities, should be treated equally
(B) slow runners and fast movers should be given equal treatment
(C) poor economic conditions of students should not restrict their reach to educational
opportunities
(D) unjust distribution of privileges to certain individuals
42. Choose the statement from the following which correctly explains the nature of evaluation in education :
(A) Evaluation and measurement are synonymous
(B) Evaluation is essentially a subjective process
(C) Evaluation of outcome preceeds instructional transaction
(D) Evaluation is a process of appraisal of an object or event with reference to some standard
43. Indicate the option which is not correct in relation to the basic principles of programmed learning ?
(A) Principle of self pacing (B) Principle of active response
(C) Principle of delayed confirmation (D) Principle of small steps
44. Statement of the instructional objectives should be :
(A) made with reference to teacher’s activity
(B) conceived and made in terms of pupil’s expected behavioural outcomes
(C) made in broader terms
(D) made in composit manner
45. Diagnostic tests aim at :
(A) identifying difficulties and weaknesses of students
(B) grading of students
(C) evaluating the achievement level of students
(D) comparing the achievement levels of students in a group
46. Formative evaluation is undertaken with an objective to :
(A) facilitate certification of the students (B) assign grades to students
(C) improve learning and instruction (D) find out level of attainment
47. Non-verbal test is the one :
(A) Where the examinee is required to perform some task
(B) Where the language is not used
(C) Where reading, writing and oral expression is the primary mode of communication
(D) Where symbolic material like pictures and figures are used
48. The levels of cognitive learning as categorised by Bloom are :
(A) Comprehension to synthesis (B) Knowledge to evaluation
(C) Application to evaluation (D) Understanding to problem solving
49. Verbal learning takes place through :
(A) Subsumption (B) Dissociation
(C) Recall (D) Organisation
50. Objective type test is the one :
(A) which discourages guessing on the part of examinee
(B) which provides the examinee opportunity for free expression
(C) where each question has only one fixed correct answer to select from given alternatives
(D) where the evaluator has the liberty to score the test items in his own way
51. Median is :
(A) a point on array above and below which one-half of scores lie
(B) the most frequently occurring score in a distribution
(C) an arithmetic average of scores
(D) square of deviations from mean scores
52. Inductive thinking model of teaching was developed by :
(A) Jerome Bruner (B) Jean Piaget
(C) Richard Suchman (D) Hild Taba
53. Which of the following does not explain the feature of Personalized System of Instruction ?
(A) It is individually pased technique of teaching and learning
(B) It extensively uses lectures to motivate the students
(C) It uses printed study guides to communicate information
(D) It is a mastery oriented learning technique
54. Computer assisted instruction refers to :
(A) denial of feedback to students
(B) replacement of the teacher from the process
(C) provision of individualized instruction to each and every student
(D) restriction on the flow of information
55. Select the verb that can present the instructional objectives in behavioural terms :
(A) explain (B) understand
(C) synthesize (D) think
56. Indicate the option from below which is not true for simulated teaching :
(A) It is a dramatic strategy of teaching
(B) It is undertaken in artificial situations
(C) It is scaled down teaching
(D) It is a rehersal before facing real class-room teaching
57. Which of the following is an audio-aid ?
(A) Dramatization (B) Phonograph disc
(C) Film strip (D) Television
58. Teachers can enhance the creativity among students in the class-rooms by :
(A) ensuring restricted atmosphere to students
(B) avoiding extending credit for innovating thinking
(C) organising controlled, formal discussions in the class-rooms
(D) encouraging unusual questions from students
59. Modern concept of supervision in educational institutions :
(A) is imposing and authoritarian
(B) is systematic approach where human interaction is ignored
(C) is based on research and analysis of total teaching-learning environment
(D) has no mandate to provide vision to the staff and faculty
60. A democratic leader in an Educational institution would prefer :
(A) making decisions by consultation, deliberation and participation of staff and faculty
(B) taking no decisions and exhibiting passivity towards problems
(C) learning all decisions to the staff and faculty
(D) directing and forcing the staff and faculty to work
61. Socialistic pattern of society aims at :
(A) ensuring status quo based on discrimination
(B) developing an egalitarian society based on justice
(C) eliminating equality in the society
(D) retaining oppression by the state
62. Comprehensive and continuous internal assessment scheme of examination aims at :
(A) creating conflict between teacher and students
(B) exposing teacher to an unfriendly situation
(C) incorporating both scholastic and non-scholastic aspects of education spread over the total span of instructional transaction
(D) making students complacent regarding their studies
63. An effective teacher tends to avoid being :
(A) sarcastic towards the students
(B) affectionate towards the students
(C) empathetic towards the students
(D) concerned and committed towards the students
64. Indicate the kind of organisational climate of an educational institution that is ranked highest for achieving the institutional goals effectively.
(A) closed climate (B) familiar climate
(C) autonomous climate (D) controlled climate
65. Parents-teachers associations aim at :
(A) bringing home, society and school in close contact
(B) promoting dissensions and politicking
(C) emerging as a parallel management structure in the school
(D) interfering with the academic programme of the school
66. Choose the body that has the mandate to regulate teacher education programmes in the country.
(A) AICTE (B) NCERT
(C) NCTE (D) MCI
67. The guidance service which systematically gather the information periodically from the alumni is known as :
(A) Placement service (B) Follow-up service
(C) Counselling service (D) Pupil inventory service
68. Non-directing counselling is :
(A) counsellor centred (B) problem centred
(C) client centred (D) family centred
69. Dyslexia is referred to the :
(A) difficulty in learning to read (B) difficulty in learning to write
(C) difficulty in doing arithmatic (D) difficulty in grasping spoken word
70. Common school system of public education was recommended by :
(A) Secondary Education Commission 1952-53
(B) Kothari Commission 1964-66
(C) Sargent Commission 1944
(D) Radha Krishan Commission-1948
71. In norm referenced evaluation the focus is on :
(A) what a child has learnt
(B) determining the extent of learning according to fixed standards
(C) where a child stands in relation to others in a group
(D) evaluation of the teaching process
72. Rate of return approach of educational planning is based on :
(A) cost benefit analysis of investment in education
(B) liberal levels of investment in education
(C) accepting education as a social good
(D) manpower needs in the society
73. Educare, the Latin word, from which the term education is perceived to be derived means :
(A) to bring up (B) to draw out
(C) to teach (D) to pamper
74. “No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institutions wholly maintained out of State funds” is taken from Constitution of India, Part IV Directive Principles of State Policy, under article :
(A) 302 (B) 29
(C) 30.1 (D) 28.1
75. In a good questionnaire, each question should be :
(A) simply worded and containing a single idea (B) hypothetical in nature
(C) presuming in nature (D) Suggestive in nature
Answer Key:
M.ED. ENTRANCE TEST - 2011
P A N J A B U N I V E R S I T Y, C H A N D I G A R H
Booklet Series .: A
Subject.........: M.ED.
No. of Questions: 75
--- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- ---
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0
--- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- ---
1 C D A B A C A D C A 10
11 B D B A B C C B C A 20
21 D C A B A C B D B A 30
31 X B C C A D B C D A 40
41 C D C B A C D B A C 50
51 A D B C A C B D C A 60
61 B C A C A C B X A B 70
71 C A B D A 80
X in the key indicates that the corresponding question is incorrect and one mark for each such question will be awarded to all candidates.
