JIPMER Previous Year Question Papers: 2000 Question Paper with answers

Want to download JIPMER entrance exam last years, previous years, old question papers? Here you will find old question paper collection of JIPMER. If you want old question paper asked in the year 2000, then look at the following contents to get a copy of JIPMER question paper. You can use it as a model question paper for preparing exams related to JIPMER. More download of previous years question papers for JIPMER will be updated later. Check back after some time. Or simply subscribe our site so that as soon as the JIPER question papers uploded here, the same will reach your email as an alert. This will save your time and effort. At the end of this JIPMER 2000 model question paper post, you will find a box where enter your email.

JIPMER 2000 with answers
ANATOMY

1. The aortic opening in the diaphragm is at the level of
A. T10
B. T12
C. T6
D. T8

Ans. B

2. Which of the following is not a content of the pudendal canal
A. Pudendal nerve
B. Internal pudendal artery
C. Internal pudendal vein
D. Nerve to obturator internus

Ans. D

3. All the following are general visceral efferent
except
A. Nucleus ambiguous
B. Dorsal nucleus of vagus
C. Salivatory nucleus
D. Edinger Westphal nucleus


Ans. A

4. Angle formed by the shaft and the neck of the femur is ___ degrees
A. 115
B. 125
C. 135
D. 145

Ans. B

5. Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ
A. Spleen
B. Lymphnode
C. Bonemarrow
D. Liver

Ans. C

6. Tongue is protruded by which of the following muscle
A. Hyoglossus
B. Palatoglossus
C. Myelohyoid
D. Genioglossus

Ans. D

7. All of the following are features of flat type of pelvis except
A. Narrow subpubic angle
B. Short concave sacrum
C. Divergent side walls
D. Wide sciatic notch

Ans. A

8. A lesion involving the C8 nerve root will affect
A. Extensors of fingers and wrist
B. Flexors of fingers and wrist
C. Small muscles of hand

Ans. B

9.Dorsal scapular nerve supplies
A. levator scapulae and rhomboids
B. supraspinatus and infra spinatus
C. lattismus dorsi
D. serratus anterior

Ans. A

10. With foot off the ground and knee flexed, medial rotation of tibia is brought
about by
A. Popliteus
B. gastrocnemius
C. vastus medialis
D. adductor magnus

Ans.

PHYSIOLOGY

11. 90% of CO 2 in blood is transported as
A. Dissolved CO2
B. HCO3-
C. Carboxy haemoglobin
D. Carbamino haemoglobin

Ans. B

12. Hardy-Weinberg law is used to predict inheritance of which of the following
type
A. autosomal dominant
B. autosomal recessive
C. x-linked dominant
D. x-linked recessive

Ans. B

13. Intercalating bridges in sarcomere are formed by
A. actin
B. myosin
C. tropomyosin
D. calmodulin

Ans. A

14. Blood flow changes are least during exercise in
A. Brain
B. Heart
C. Skin

 Ans. A

15. The main fuel used during starvation by a healthy adult
is
A. free fatty acids
B. amino acids
C. glucose
D. ketone body

Ans. C?

16. Which of the following sensations is not converging on hypothalamus
A. smell
B. fine touch
C. hearing
D. vision
Ans. C

17. If acid is added to a medium containing intact mitochondria which of the
following is seen
A. uncoupling of phosphorylation
B. inhibition of Electron Transport Chain
C. inhibition of phosphorylation
D. generation of ATP
Ans.
18. Instrumental conditioning in learning was introduced and demonstrated
by
A. Pavlov
B. Skinner
C. Freud
D. Watson

Ans. B?

19. Endothelium derived relaxation factor is supposed to be
A. Nitric oxide

Ans. A

20. The fine movements of voluntary muscles are controlled by
A. Anterior corticospinal tract
B. Lateral corticospinal tract
C. Tectospinal
D. Vestibulospinal

Ans.

BIOCHEMISTRY

21. Features of Vitamin C deficiency is due to defect of which
enzyme
A. Lysyl hydroxylase
B. Lysyl oxidase
C. Procollagen peptidase

Ans. A

22. Okazaki pieces are seen in
A. DNA repair
B. DNA replication
C. Transcription
D. Translation

Ans. B

23. Major Histocompatibility Complex is located
on
A. Long arm of chromosome 6
B. Short arm of chromosome 6
C. Long arm of chromosome 7
D. Short arm of chromosome 7

Ans. B

24.Which of the following ketone bodies is commonest following prolonged
starvation
A. Aceto acetate
B. B-hydroxy buryrate
C. acetone
D. alpha ketoglutarate

Ans. B?

25. cAMP is degraded by
A. Phosphodiesterase
B. Phosphokinase
C. Phosphatase
D. Xanthine oxidase

Ans. A

MICROBIOLOGY

26. Bacterial adherence to epithelium is mediated through
A. pili
B. fimbriae
C. flagella
D. mesosomes

Ans. A

27. Which of the following organism is capsulated

A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Cryptococcus neoformans
C. Candida albicans

Ans. B

28. Ova with lateral spines is a feature of
A. Schistosoma japonicum
B. Schistosoma mansoni
C. Schistosoma haematobium
D. Schistosoma mekongi

Ans. B

29. Which of the following is an oncogenic retrovirus
A. HTLV-1
B. HPV
C. EBV
D. HBV

Ans. A

30. Which of the following activates the alternate complement pathway
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgD

Ans. A

31. Which of the following activates the classical complement pathway
A. Immune complex
B. Lipopolysaccharide
C. Exotoxin

Ans. A

32. Serum sickness is due to which type of hypersensitivity
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

Ans. C

33. Most common site of infection with Cryptococcus neoformans is
A. Lung
B. Meninges

Ans. B

34. All are true about streptococcal infections except
A. throat infection more common in age group of 5-15years
B. skin infection more common in age <3yrs
C. 15-20% colonization of mucosal surfaces
D. scarlet fever more common <3yrs
Ans. D
PATHOLOGY

35. Which of the following is not a feature of anemia of chronic disease
A. increased TIBC
B. increased serum iron
C. increased serum ferritin
D. increased bone marrow iron

Ans. B

36. Which among the following does not secrete Interleukin 1 alpha
A. lymphocyte
B. fibroblast
C. macrophage
D. endothelium

Ans. A

37. Histological scoring' of chronic hepatitis does not include
A. periportal inflammation
B. portal fibrosis
C. bridging necrosis
D. cholestasis

Ans. D

38. Pulmonary surfactant is synthesized by
A. Type I pneumocytes
B. Type II pneumocytes
Ans. B

39. Regarding DIC all the following features are correct except
A. Increased fibrin degradation products
B. Decreased platelets
C. Increased fibrinogen

Ans. C

PHARMACOLOGY

40. Which of the following is the most beta-1 selective antagonist
A. Acebutolol
B. Atenolol
C.Metoprolol
D.Bisoprolol

Ans. D

41. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in all the following except
A. Bilateral renal artery stenosis
B. Elderly hypertensive
C. Diabetic microalbuminuria
D. Severe renal failure

Ans. C

42. Which of the following is a cardiotoxic anticancer drug
A. bleomycin
B. doxorubicin
C. 5 FU

Ans. B

43. Opiod induced respiratory depression can be reversed with
A. Naloxone
B. Theophylline
C. Artificial ventillation

Ans. A
44. Calcium channel blocker which is usually used in subarachnoid hemorrhage is
A. Nimodipine
B. Diltiazem
C. Verapamil

Ans. A

45. Drug induced cirrhosis is not seen with
A. alpha methyldopa
B. phenylbutazone
C. INH

Ans. B

46. Which of the following is not used in the prophylaxis of febrile seizures
A. sodium valproate
B. carbamazepine
C. phenobarbitone
D. diazepam

 Ans. B

47. Which of the following drugs is tuberculostatic
A. Rifampicin
B. Ethambutol
C. Pyrazinamide
D. INH

Ans. B

48. Which of the following drugs will not cause hypothyroidism
A. Ethambutol
B. Lithium
C. Amiodarone
D. Pyrazinamide

Ans. D

49. Dopamine inhibits secretion of
A. Growth hormone
B. Prolactin

Ans. B

50. Which of the following is not an analeptic agent
A. Doxapram
B. Nikethamide
C. Doxacurium
D. Propylbutamide

Ans. C

51. Which of the following drugs is not used for the treatment of anaerobic
infections
A. penicillin
B. clindamycin
C. chloramphenicol
D. gentamycin

Ans. D

52. Which of the following drugs is used to treat Chlamydia infection in pregnancy
A. Doxycyclin
B. Erythromycin
C. Mirepenam
D. Tetracyclin

Ans. B
53. Troglitazone is the drug used in the treatment of
A. petit mal epilepsy
B. type 2 diabetes mellitus
C. hyperlipidaemia

 Ans. B

54. Which of the following is not an alpha-2 stimulant
A. guanabenz
B. guanadrel
C. clonidine
D. alpha methyl dopa

Ans. B

55. 99% of degradation of Iodine131 occurs in
A. 26days
B. 36days
C. 46days
D. 56days

Ans. D

56. Atropine is added with diphenoxylate to
A. Increase effect
B. decrease side effects
C. decrease abuse
D. enhance absorption
Ans. C

57. Monitoring of drug level is not needed with which of the following drugs
A. Lithium
B. L-Dopa
C. Digoxin
D. Phenytoin

Ans. B

58. Which among the following have greatest affinity for pseudocholine
esterase
A. Mivacurium
B. Atracurium

Ans. A

59. Selective decrease in IgA is seen with administration of
A. Phenytoin
B. Diazepam
C. Clonazepam
D. Phenobarbitone

Ans. A

60. Which of the following is prothrombotic
A. Thrombomodulin
B. PGI2
C. Heparin
D. ADP

Ans. D

61. Carbamazepine toxicity is precipitated by
A. Erythromycin
B. vitaminK
C. Theophyllin

Ans. A



FORENSIC MEDICINE

62. Which of the following is most useful for sex determination
A. Skull
B. femur
C. pelvis
D. tibia

Ans. C

63. Which of the following is diagnostic of drowning
A. froth in the nostrils
B. cutis anserina
C. water in the stomach
D. mud in the respiratory passages

Ans. A

64. Green colored urine is seen after ingestion of
A.copper sulphate
B.phenol
C.organophosphorus
D.cyanide

 Ans. B

65. Leading questions are not permitted in
A.cross examination
B.examination in chief
C.questions by the judge

Ans. B

MEDICINE

66. Diagnosis of lung sequestration is by
A.CT
B.Angiography
C.MRI
D.X-ray

Ans. B

67. Bleeding in a case of obstructive jaundice is treated with
A.Fresh Frozen Plasma
B.Cryo precipitate
C.Whole blood
D.Buffy coat extract

Ans. A

68. Dichrotic pulse is seen in
A. Cardiac tamponade
B. Aortic regurgitation
C. dilated cardiomyopathy
D. restrictive cardiomyopathy

Ans. C

69. Which of the following ECG finding is diagnostic of cardiac ischaemia in
treadmill test
A. flat ST depression
B. upsloping ST depression
C. ventricular tachycardia
D. T wave inversion

Ans. A




70. A child presents with a history of scorpion sting. He is having increased
sweating. What is the best next step
A.lytic cocktail
B.atropine
C.antevenom

 Ans. C

71. Transudative type of pleural effusion is a feature
of
A.variceal sclerotherapy
B.coronary artery bypass
C.peritoneal dialysis
D.radiation

Ans.

72. The drug of choice for type 2 lepra reaction is
A.Clofazimine
B.Chloroquin
C.Thalidomide
D.Steroids

Ans. C

73. All are true about amyotropic lateral sclerosis except
A.Bowel and bladder involvement is present
B.LMN in upper limb
C.UMN in lower limb
D.no sensory involvement

Ans. A

74. Senile plaques in brain is a feature of
A.Multiple sclerosis
B.Parkinsonism
C.Alzheimer's disease

Ans. C

75. Primary unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is a feature of

A.Dubin Jhonson syndrome
B.Rotor syndrome
C.Gilbert's syndrome
D.primary biliary cirrhosis

Ans. C

76. Most common cause of ambiguous genitalia is
A.Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
B.Klinefelter's syndrome
C.Testicular feminization

Ans. A

77. Which of the following is not an ECG sign of
hypokalemia
A.tall T waves
B.U waves
C.flat ST segment

Ans. A

78. Most common cause of myelophthisic anemia is
A.Multiple myeloma
B.NHL
C.Lukaemia
D.multiple secondaries

Ans. D?

79. Which of the following is most efficiently transmitted by needle stick injury
A.HIV
B.Hepatitis B
C.Hepatitis C
D.CMV

Ans. B

80. Benzene induced hemolytic anemia is seen with all except
A.Non Hodgkin's lymphoma
B.AML
C.ALL
D.Aplastic anemia

Ans. A?

81. Which of the following is best used in the diagnosis of congenital syphilis
A.FTA-ABS
B.TPHA
C.IgM-FTA ABS
D.TPI

Ans. C

82.Treatment with intravenous immunoglobulin is contraindicated in
A.X-linked agammaglobulinemia
B.Kawasaki's disease
C.Guillen Barrie syndrome
D.Selective IgA deficiency

Ans. D

83.Grade 1 lymphedema means
A.pitting edema up to the ankle
B.pitting edema up to the knee
C.non-pitting edema
D.edema disappearing after overnight rest

Ans. D

84. Cause of diarrhea in Diabetes mellitus is
A.defective absorption
B.abnormality in gastrointestinal motility
C.primary mucosal disease.

Ans. B

85. Parenteral nutrition is best given through
A.femoral vein
B.saphenous vein
C.subclavian vein

Ans. C

86. The precursor of amyloid Transthyretin is deposited in which of the following
conditions
A.Alzheimer's disease
B.senile cardiac amyloidosis
C.medullary carcinoma thyroid
D.multiple myeloma

Ans. B

87. Egg shell calcification in hilar lymphnodes is a feature of
A.sarcoidosis
B.silicosis
C.lymphoma

Ans. B

88. Which of the following is not a tumor suppressor
gene
A.N myc
B.Rb
C.p53
D.Mad-max

Ans. A

89. Which of the following is the best initial screening test for thrombocytopenia

A.bleeding time
B.clotting time
C.platelet count

Ans. A

90. In Down's syndrome which of the following is true
A.the language defect progresses with age
b seen when mothers are aged between 30-39yrs in >50% of
cases
C.the severity of facial changes denotes the severity of mental retardation
D.seizures are common

Ans. B


91. Macula cerulea is seen in
A.Pediculosis humanis corporis
B.Pediculosis capitis
C.Phthiris pubis

Ans. C

92. Lyonization occurs usually at
A.9th day
B.16th day
C.28th day
D.36th day

Ans. B


93. Localized tetanus is due to
A.large gaping wound
B.atypical strains of bacteria
C.abnormally long incubation period
D.partial immunity

 Ans. A?

94. Sphenoid wing dysplasia is seen in
A.Von Hippel Lindau's disease
B.Neurofibromatosis
C.Sturge Weber syndrome
D.Bournville's disease

Ans. B

95. CMV does not cause
A.intracranial calcification
B.congenital heart disease
C.mental retardation
D.seizures

 Ans. B






96. In cow's milk allergy all are seen except
A.Irondeficiency anemia
B.bloody diarrhea
C.pulmonary hemosiderosis
D.intestinal colic

 Ans. A

97. Foster's test is used in the diagnosis of
A.spastic type of Cerbral Palsy
B.hypotonic CP
C.choreo athetotic CP
D.Myasthenia gravis

Ans.

98. Features of hypothyroidism due to TRH/TSH deficiency include all the following
except
A.mental retardation
B.hypoglycemia
C.low hairline
D.micropenis

Ans.

99. Renal papillary necrosis is seen in all the following except
A.analgesic nephropathy
B.hydronephrosis
C.acute pyelonephritis
D.sickle cell disease

Ans. B

100. Rhinopharyngitis mutilans is not seen in
A.Yaws
B.Pinta
C.Leprosy
D.Kala azar

Ans. B

101. In acute myocardial infarction the best drug to cause thrombolysis and to start
reperfusion is
A.streptokinase
B.urokinase
C.tissue plasminogen activator
D.anisoylated plasminogen streptokinase activator complex

 Ans. C

102. Iliac horns are seen in
A.Nail patella syndrome
B.ankylossing spondylitis

Ans. A


103. Regarding lacunar infarcts a feature not seen is
A.multiple
B.pontine
C.severe symptoms

Ans. C

104. Diet therapy in a MI patient should start at what LDL cholesterol level
A.100mg/dl
B.130mg/dl
C.160mg/dl
D.190mg/dl

Ans. A
SURGERY

105. 'Flower vase' appearance in IVP is seen in
A.Poly cystic kidney disease
B.Horse Shoe Kidney
C.Hydronephrosis
D.Ectopic kidney

Ans. B

106. Comma shaped calcification in soft tissues is seen with
A.Armillifer
B.Loa Loa
C.Cysticercus cellulosae
D.Guinea worm

Ans. A

107. A T2 tumor of the oral cavity near the mandible is best treated with
A.Radiotherapy
B.Chemotherapy
C.Surgery
D.Laser ablation

Ans. C?

108. Commonest type of hypospadias is
A.glandular
B.penile
C.coronal
D.scrotal

Ans. A

109. Which of the following is not a feature of Thrombo Angitis
Obliterans
A.it usually occurs before the age of 50 years
B.lower limbs are affected before upper limbs
C.there is associated phlebitis
D.femoral artery is involved

Ans. D

110. A 30 year old women is accidently found to have a wide mouthed Meckel'sdiverticulum
during laprotomy.What is the best method of treatment
A.Diverticulectomy
B.leave it alone
C.resection of diverticulum and invagination of stump
D.resection of diverticulum with a short segment of ileum and anastomosis

Ans. B

111. Radioopaque shadow seen immediately after trauma to the chest could be
due to
A.pulmonary embolism
B.pulmonary contusion
C.hemothorax
D.pneumonia

Ans. C

112. Most common cause of bloody discharge from nipple
is
A.Duct ectasia
B.Duct carcinoma
C.Duct papilloma

Ans. C

113. Compared with Crohn's disease Ulcerative colitis does not have more
A.malignant change
B.fistula formation
C.bleeding per rectum
D.cholangio carcinoma

Ans. B

114. All are true about deQuervain's thyroiditis
except
A.Usually follows a viral infection
B.There is increased radio iodine uptake
C.Initial hyperthyroid state
D.Anti thyroids are of no use

Ans. B

115. Which of the following test is used to detect perforator incompetence in
varicose veins
A. Trendelenberg test
B. Fegan's test
C. Morissey's test
D. Homan's test

Ans. B

116. Interruption of Inferior venacava is not indicated in
A.multiple septic emboli
B.multiple small peripheral emboli
C.when anticoagulation is contraindicated
D.Ileo femoral thrombosis

Ans. C

117. Which of the following salivary gland tumors shows perineural spread
A.Warthin's tumor
B.adenoid cystic carcinoma
C.carcinoma in pleomorphic adenoma
D.mucoepidermoid carcinoma

 Ans. B
118. Prolonged intake of refined foods leads to which of the following
carcinoma
A.stomach
B.gall bladder
C.colon
D.pancreas

Ans. C


119. The X-ray finding which helps to distinguish Hirschsprung's disease from
congenital mega colon is
A.Delayed evacuation of barium
B.Air fluid levels
C.Presence of a transition zone
D.Dilated bowel loops

Ans. C

120. Which of the following is not a feature of a healthy healing ulcer
A.Sloping edge
B. Undermined edge
C. Serous discharge
D. Reddish base

Ans. B


121 What is the management of a low, straight, 2cm long peri anal fistula
A. fistulectomy
B. seton repair
C. proximal colostomy
D. anal dilatation

Ans. A

122. Graft used in infra inguinal bypass is
A. PTFE
B. Dacron
C. Autologous vein

Ans. C

123. Best treatment for external hemorrhage from an extremity is
A. elevation of the limb
B. proximal tourniquet
C. direct pressure
D. ligation of the bleeding vessel

Ans. C

124. Investigation of choice for Posterior urethral valve is
A. Retrograde cystourethrogram
B. MCU
C. IVP
D. USG

Ans. B

125. Most virus associated malignancy is
A. Carcinoma cervix
B. Burkitt's lymphoma
C. Carcinoma Breast

Ans. C

126. Most common age group of benign cystic teratoma is
A. <10yrs
B. 20-40yrs
C. 40-60yrs
D. >60yrs

Ans.

127. Burns involving head face and trunk constitutes how much percentage
A. 45%
B. 55%
C. 60%
D. 65%

Ans. A

PSM

128. Net Reproductive Rate of 1 implies a Couple Protection Rate
of
A. 50
B. 60
C. 70
D. 80

Ans. B
 www.aippg.com
discuss questions at message board at aippg.com
129. Vector of Japanese Encephalitis in South India is

A.Culex tritaneorhyncus
B.Anopheles
Ans. A
130. Minimum level of free chlorine in potable water
is
A. 1mg
B. 0.5mg
C. 0.2 mg
D. 0.7mg

Ans. B

131. Which of the following is true about Cohort study
A.incidence can be calculated
B.it is from effect to cause
C.it is inexpensive
D.shorter time than case control

Ans. A

132. Which of the following diseases is not included in international health
regulations
A. plague
B. yellow fever
C. cholera
D. polio

Ans. D

133. The size of sand particle in slow sand filter
is
A. 0.1 -0.2 mm
B. 0.2-0.3 mm
C. 0.3-0.4 mm
D. 0.4-0.5 mm

Ans. B

134. What is the potassium concentration in WHO ORS solution
A. 10meq
B. 20meq
C. 30meq
D. 40meq

 Ans. B

135. In the surveillance for Acute Flaccid Paralysis, the age group that is included
is below
A. 5yrs
B. 12yrs
C. 8yrs
D. 16yrs

Ans. B?

136. Which of the following is not monitored in malaria surveillance now
A. ABER
B. Infant parasite rate
C. Annual parasite incidence
D. Slide positivity rate

Ans. B

137. Which of the following is true about Botulism
A.high fever
B.brisk reflexes
C.salivation
D.sore throat

Ans. D





138. What is the BMI(body mass index) of a male with weight 45kg and height
1.5m
A.19
B.20
C.21
D.18

Ans.B

139. Which of the following is used to destroy algae in water
A. Copper sulphate
B. Pottassium permanganate
C. Hypochlorite
D. Bleaching powder

Ans. A

140. Chikungunya virus is transmitted by all the following mosquitoes except
A. Culex
B. Anopheles
C. Aedes
D. Mansonoides

Ans. B

141. The WHO criteria for TB control means
A.Incidence of infection in cheldren less than 5yrs is <1%

 Ans. A

142. Validity of a screening test includes all except
A.sensitivity
B.specificity
C.repeatability
D.accuracy

Ans. C

143.Which of the following is not sexually transmitted
A. Entameba histolytica
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Trichomonas vaginalis
D. Leishmania brasiliensis

Ans. D

144. According to WHO the minimum number of antenatal visits to prevent
maternal mortality is
A.3
B.6
C.9
D.12

Ans. A

145. What is the definition of blindness according to WHO
A.vision less than 3/60

Ans. A

146. Which of the following is not a priority vaccine for the first year of life
A.Hib
B.Hepatitis B
C.DPT

 Ans. B



147. What is the incubation period of vaccine strain of measles virus
A. 7days
B. 10days
C. 14days
D. 18days

 Ans. A

148. PQLI does not include
A.Infant Mortality rate
B.Gross national Product
C.Litreacy rate
D.Life expectancy at 1 year of age.

Ans. B

149. Which of the following rates is not only an indicator of mortality but also of the
living standard of a community
A.IMR
B.PNMR
C.MMR

 Ans. A

150. Which of the following is a parametric test of significance
A. U test
B. t-test

Ans. B

151.All are components of Primary Health Care except
A.providing essential drugs
B.supplementary nutrition
C.treatment of locally endemic diseases and minor ailments
D.prevention of locally endemic diseases

Ans. B


152. Standard Normal deviate is given by the formula
A.x-`x/s
B.(x-`x)2/s

Ans. A

153. The minimum period of treatment for multibacillary leprosy
is
A. 1yr
B. 2yrs
C. 6months
D. 9months

Ans. B

154. Relative risk is assessed on the basis of
A. Strength of association
B. Possibility
C. Dose response

Ans. A

155. Median incubation period means
A. Time for 50% cases to occur
B. Time between primary case and secondary case
C. Time between onset of infection and period of maximum infectivity

Ans. A



156. In census literacy rate is assessed by
A.attended literacy classes for one year
B.ability to write signature
C.ability to read and write

Ans. C

157. Ringer lactate does not contain
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Chloride
D. Bicarbonate

Ans. D

158. Sickness benefit in ESI is for how many days
A. 51
B. 61
C. 91
D. 71

Ans. C

ORTHOPEDICS

159. Rigid flat foot is not seen in
A. Osteo arthritis
B. rheumatoid arthritis
C. peroneal spasm
D. congenital tarsal fusion

Ans. A

160. What is the diagnostic radiological finding in skeletal flurosis
A. sclerosis of sacroiliac joint
B. interroseous membrane ossification
C. osteosclerosis of vertebral body
D. osssification of ligaments of knee joint

Ans. D?

161.Which of the following childhood disorders is a common differential diagnosis
of osteomyelitis
A.chondrosarcoma
B.Ewing's sarcoma
C.osteosarcoma

 Ans. B

162. A segmental compound fracture of tibia with 1 cm skin wound is classified
as
A.Type I
B.Type II
C.Type IIIA
D.Type IIIB

Ans. A?

163. Minimum intradiscal pressure in vertebral column is seen when a person is
A. standing
B. sitting
C. lying flat
D. lying on one side

Ans.




164. What is the position of lower limb in anterior dislocation of hip
A.flexion adduction and internal rotation
B.flexion adduction and external rotation
C.flexion abduction and internal rotation
D.flexion abduction and external rotation

Ans. D

165.Which of the following is not a complication of Colle's fracture
A.Sudek's osteodystrophy
B.Non Union
C.Shoulder stiffness
D.Malunion

Ans. B

166. Median nerve involvement is most common with
A. elbow dislocation
B. supracondylar fracture
C. lateral condyle fractrue
D. olecranon fracture

Ans. B

167. Earliest bone to ossify is
A. Clavicle
B. Tibia
C. Sternum
D. Ribs

Ans. A

ENT

168.Bezold's abscess is seen at
A.petrous tip
B.Mastoid tip
C.digastric triangle
D.subdurally

Ans. B

169. Which of the following is not a feature of
Rhinosporidiosis
A.Bleeding polyp
B.Russel bodies are seen
C.Oral Dapsone is useful in treatment
D.bleeding is present

Ans. B

170. In a patient with hypertrophied adenoids the voice abnormality that is seen
is
A.rhinolalia clausa
B.rhinolalia aperta
C.hotpotato voice

Ans. A

171. Abductor of the vocal cord is
A.lateral cricoarytenoid
B.cricothyroid
C.posterior cricoarytenoid

Ans. C





172. Cottel's test is used to test the patency of the nares
in
A.Atrophic rhinitis
B.Rhinosporidiosis
C.Deviated nasal septum
D.Hypertrophied inferior turbinate

Ans. C

173. Which of the following is not seen in Menier's disease
A.vertigo
B.tinnitus
C.conductive deafness

Ans. C

174. Which of the following ECG finding is associated with congenital deafness
A.delta wave
B.long QT
C.short PR interval

Ans. B

175. Which among the following is not true about otosclerosis
A.hearing better in louder conditions
B.Eustachian tube is always abnormal
C.tympanic membrane is normal
D.bilateral progressive conductive deafness

 Ans. B

176. For Grommet tube insertion in serous otitis media, the incision on tympanic
membrane is made on
A.anteroinferior quadrant
B.anterosuperior quadrant
C.posterosuperior quadrant
D.posteroinferior quadrant

 Ans. A

177. What is the symptom of a person with unilateral abductor paralysis
A.dyspnea on exertion
B.transient hoarseness
C.husky voice
D.inspiratory stridor

Ans. B

178. Regarding acute vestibular neuronitis all are true except
A.tinnitus and vertigo developing over 1-2 weeks
B.high frequency sensory hearing loss
C.spontaneous nystagmus is present
D.usually follows an upper respiratory tract infection

Ans. B

179. Most common complication of tracheostomy is
A.pneumothorax
B.surgical emphysema
C.injury to the large vessels
D.injury to esophagus

Ans. B







EYE

180. Cherry red spot in retina is a feature of
A.Infantile Gaucher's disease
B.Niemann Pick disease
C.Fabry's disease

Ans. B

181. Preganglionic and post ganglionic Horner's syndrome are differentiated by
application of
A.Atropine
B.Pilocarpine
C.Timolol
D.Hydroxy amphetamine

Ans. D

182. Axial proptosis is caused by
A. blow out fracture of the orbit
B. maxillary tumor invading the orbit
C. frontal mucocele
D. optic glioma

Ans. D

183. Which of the following is used for treatment of myopia
A. Nd YAG laser
B. Excimer laser
C. Argon laser
D. Hormium laser

Ans. B

184. Sun flower cataract is seen in
A.Blunt trauma
B.Diabetes
C.Chalcosis
D.Argyriosis

Ans. C

185. Steroid may be used in the treatment of which of the following type of herpes
keratitis
A. Superficial punctate keratitis
B. Dendritic ulcer
C. Geographic ulcer
D. Disciform keratitis

Ans. D

186. Which of the following is the cause of blindness in partial retinal branch vein
occlusion
A. Cystoid macular edema
B. Macular hemorrhage
C. Vitreous hemorrhage

Ans. A

187. Miotics are useful in which type of squint
A. Accomodative squint
B. Paralytic squint
C. Divergant squint
D. Congenital squint

Ans. A





188. Extra capsular extraction of lens is not possible in
A. hypermature cataract
B. immature cataract
C. lens subluxation
D. developmental cataract

Ans. C

189. KF ring in Wilson's disease is seen at the level of
A. Deschmet's membrane
B. epithelium
C. endothelium
D. stroma

Ans. A

190. Treatment of congenital dacryocystitis is
A.dacryocystectomy
B.hydrostaticmassage
C.probing and syringing with antibiotics
D.dacryocystorhinostomy

 Ans. B

191.Cattle truck appearance on fundus examination is a feature of
A.CRVO
B.Incomplete CRAO
C.Incomplete CRVO
D.Hypertensive retinopathy

Ans. B

192.Whorled keratopathy is seen with the use of
A. Digoxin
B. Amiodarone
C. Ethambutol

Ans. B?

PSYCHIATRY

193. Reversible dementia is a feature of
A.Alzheimer's disease
B.Pick's disease
C.Multiinfarct dementia
D.Hypothyroidism

Ans. D

194. Which of the following is not a classical symptom of depression
A.altered sleep pattern
B.weight loss
C.guilt
D.decreased apettite

Ans. C?

195. Psychomotor symptoms are associated with which type of
schizophrenia
A.hebephrenic
B.catatonic
C.paranoid
D.simple

Ans. B

196. Which of the following is a first rank symptom in
Schizophrenia
A.perceptional delusions
B.thought insertion
C.perceptional hallucinations

Ans. B
 A I P P G
197. Which of the following is not seen in Korsakoff's syndrome
A.clear consciousness
B.inabiliity to learn new things
C.hallucinations
D.confabulation
Ans. C

198. Wernicke Korsakoff's syndrome is due to the deficiency of which of the
following
A.Pyridoxine
B.Thiamine
C.Vitamin B12
D.Riboflavin

Ans. B

199. The type of treatment which can be used for mental retardation is
A.Psychoanalysis
B.Family therapy
C.Transaction analysis
D.Rapid emotive treatment and response

Ans.

200. deJavu phenomenon means
A.feeling that familiar things look unfamiliar
B.individual feels that he knows the surroundings even though he is new to it

Ans. B


SKIN

201. Condyloma accuminatum is produced by which type of papilloma
virus
A.HPV 6-16
B.HPV 6-11
C.HPV 16-18
D.HPV 11-18

Ans. B

202. Herald patch is seen in
A.pityriasis rosea
B.lichen planus
C.DLE

Ans. A

203. Which of the following is not a pyoderma
A.Furuncle
B.Ecthyma
C.Pyoderma gangrenosum
D.Carbuncle

 Ans. C

204.Treatment of choice for disseminated gonococcal infection is
A.penicillin
B.ceftriaxone

Ans. B

205. Epidemic tenia capitis is caused by
A.Trichopyton mentagrophytes
B.Trichophyton rubrum
C.Microsporum audoni

Ans. C

206. Scabies in children differs from that in adults in that it affects
A.webspace
B.face
C.genitalia
D.axilla

Ans. B

207. A smear from a genital lesion shows Donovan bodies. The diagnosis is
A.Lymphogranuloma venerium
B.Chancroid
C.Granuloma inguanale

Ans. C

208. Photosensitivity is seen in all except
A. SLE
B. Xeroderma pigmentosa
C. Poephyria cutanea tarda
D. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum

Ans. D

ANAESTHESIA

209. Which of the following induction agent is used to produce a 'street-fit' person
following surgery
A.midazolam
B.propofol
C.alfentanyl
D.thiopentone

Ans. B

210. Which of the following reacts with Soda lime in anaesthetic circuits
A.trichloroethylene
B.isoflurane
C.halothane
D.methoxyflurane

Ans. A

211. Which of the following anesthetics sensitizes the heart to catecholamines
A.Halothane
B.Isoflurane
C.Enflurane

 Ans. A

212. Thiopentone sodium has a short duration of action because
A.it is rapidly metabolized
B.it is rapidly redistributed

Ans. B


213. In emergency caesarian section rapid induction of anesthesia is done to
A.prevent gastric aspiration
B.prevent fetal depression
C.to decrease awareness

Ans. A

PEDIATRICS
 all india pre pg inc (A I P P G)
214. In meconium aspiration syndrome all of the following are true
except
A.there is always respiratory distress
B.steroids are not useful
C.ECMO may be useful

Ans. A

215. What is the percentage of steroid responders in a case of Minimal Change
disease
A.65%
B.75%
C.85%
D.95%

 Ans. D

216. At what age a child is able to state correctly his name and sex
A.24months
B.36months
C.30months
D.42months
Ans. A?

217. Which of the following reflexes is present at birth
A.knee jerk
B.ankle jerk
C.biceps jerk
D.triceps jerk

Ans.


218. Swollen cherry red lip with strawberry tongue is a feature of
A.Kawasaki disease
B.Scarlet fever

Ans. A

219. Which of the following will not lead to decrease in cell mediated immunity
A.protein energy malnutrition
B.zinc deficiency
C.selenium deficiency
D.iron deficiency

Ans. C

220. In Phenylketonuria all are true except
A.EEG abnormality in 50% of cases
B.convulsion in 25% of cases
C.Blood is drawn for testing immediately after birth
D.profuse vomiting

Ans. C

221. A 15 month old child is able to do all the following except
A.crawl upstairs
B.make a tower of 5 cubes
C.name familiar objects
D.point to familiar things

Ans. B

GYNAE & OBST.

222. Which of the following is the commonest cause of urethritis with leucorrhea
A.Chlamydia trachomatis
B.H.vaginalis
C.Trichomonas
D.Candida

Ans. A

223. A pregnant women presents with a placenta praevia of a major degree. The
fetus is malformeD. Which of the following will be the best line on
management
A.cesarian section
B.oxytocin drip
C.rupture of membranes
D.instillation of PG E2

Ans. A

224. Transverse lie is most likely to occur in
A.subseptate uterus
B.uterus didelphys
C.hypoplastic uterus
D.unicornuate uterus

Ans. A
 www.aippg.com
225. Osiander's sign means
A. Pulsation in the lateral vaginal fornix
B. Bluish colour change in the vagina
C.Softening of the cervix
D.On bimanual palpation the fingers can be approximated as if nothing is in
between

Ans. A


226. Which of the following does not cross placenta
A.heparin
B.propranolol
C.warfarin

Ans. A

227. Magnesium sulfate as an uterine relaxant is contraindicated in following
except
A.premature rupture of membrane
B.intrauterine infection
C.myasthenia gravis
D.renal failure

Ans. B

228. Anti epileptic agent given in pregnancy is
A.phenytoin
B.sodium valproate
C.carbamazepine
D.lamotrigene

Ans. D

229. A pregnant woman with Mitral stenosis is most likely to undergo failure in
which period
A.16wks
B.24wks
C.20wks
D.28wks

Ans. D

230. CA-125 is the tumor marker for
A.colon
B.ovary

Ans. B

231. Incidence of scar rupture in a pregnant lady with previous LSCS
is
A. 0.2
B. 0.5
C. 0.7
D. 0.9

Ans.

232. Karyotype of Turner's syndrome is
A. XO
B. XX
C. XXY
D. XY

Ans. A

233. What is true about shoulder presentation
A. Ccord prolapse is common
B. 3rd degree perineal tear is common
C. Deep transverse arrest can occur
D. More common in primi

Ans.

234. Variable deceleration indicates
A.head compression
B.cord compression
C.fetal hypoxaemia
D.maternal sedation
Ans. B


235. Regarding monozygotic twins which of the following is not true
A. USG is more useful in the first half of pregnancy
B. sex discordance can occur rarely
C. always monochorionic
D. more common following ovulation induction

Ans. C

236. The placenta is formed from
A.decidua basalis
B.decidua vera
C.chorion levae
D.decidua capsularis

Ans. A

237. The level of hCG is maximum during which day of
pregnancy
A.50-60
B.60-70
C.70-80
D.80-90

Ans. B

238. Failure rate of tubal sterilization is one in
A. 100
B. 200
C. 500
D. 1000

Ans. B
239. Which cervical fibroid is most likely to cause urinary retention
A.Anterior
B.Posterior
C.Submucous
D.Subserous

Ans. A

240. Fetal lung maturity is assessed by all the following except
A. Lecithin sphingomyelin ratio
B. Nile blue sulfate test
C. Nitrazine paper test
D. Creatinine estimation of amniotic fluid

Ans. C

241. If a patient comes with complaints of post dated pregnancy what is the first
thing that you will do
A. USG
B. NST
C. Review the menstrual history once more
D. X-ray abdomen

Ans. C

242. First trimester USG is not indicated in
A.Hydramnios
B.Hyper emesis gravidarum

Ans. A

243. Parkland formula for burns is for
A.Ringer lactate
B.glucose saline
C.Normal saline

Ans. A

244. Paracusis willisi is seen in
A.stapedial fixation
B.ASOM

Ans. A

245. Mesonephric duct remnant seen in anterolateral vaginal wall is
A.Gartner's cyst
B.endometriotic cyst
C.Inclusion cyst

Ans. A

RADIOLOGY

246. Which among the following is least likely to be affected by radiation
A.skin
B.muscle
C.bone marrow
D.intestine

Ans. B

247. Bull's eye lesion in ultrasonography is seen in
A. Candidiasis
B. Aspergillosis
C. Sporotrichosis
D. Cryptococcosis

Ans. A
248. Unit of absorbed dose of radiation is
A.Becqueral
B.Gray
C.Stewart
D.Roentgen

Ans. B

249. Which of the following is a characteristic radiological finding in neonatal
necrotizing enterocolitis
A. Gas in the portal system
B. Gas in the intestinal wall
C. Pneumoperitoneum
D. Air fluid levels

Ans. B

250. Sign of contour is seen in
A. Ulcerative colitis
B. duedonal atrisia
C. Chron's disease

JIPMER 2001
1)Vocalis Muscle is a part of
a)Thyroarytenoid
b)Cricoarytenoid
c)Transverse arytenoid
d)Posterior cricoarytenoid
2)Sumatriptan is contraindicated in
a)Asthma
b)DM
c)Coronary artery disease
d)peripheral vascular disease
3)Non granular fungal disease is
a)Cryptococcus
b)Blastomycosis
c)Candida
d)
4)All following are true of seminiferous tubules except
a)Sertoli cells
b)Leydig cells
c)spermatid
d)Spermatogonia
5)Sub-poena is a
a)Legal
b)medicolegal
c)Medical
d)first info report
6)Refsum disease is due to defect in enzyme
a)Phytanic acid oxidase
b)
c)
d)
7)Skin supplied over the angle of mandible and parotid area is by
a)Greater auricular
b)posterior auricular
c)auriculotemporal
d)facial
8)Adductor pollicis is supplied by
a)Superficial branch of ulnar nerve
b)deep branch of ulnar nerve
c)radial nerve d)median nerve
9)Ring Scotoma is seen in
a)Retinitis Pigmentosa
b)
c)
d)
10) In a patient, highest visual morbidity is seen in
a)Nuclear cataract
b)Intumescent cataract
c)Posterior subcapsular
d)
11)Klumpke paralysis is
a)C5,C6
B)C6,C7
C)C8,T1
D)T1,T2
12)For the treatment of a patient with after cataract which laser is used
a)LASIC
b)YAG
c)excimer
d)Argon
13)Most malignant breast tumor of the following is
a)inflammatory carcinoma
b)Mucinous carcinoma
c)Colloid carcinoma
d)Paget's` disease of breast.
14)Full thickness graft means:
a)Only epidermis
b)epidermis and superficial dermis
c)epidermis + whole dermis
d)epidermis, dermis and subcutaneous tissue
15)A 50yr old woman weighing 50kg and having almost complete burns comes to burns ward.
According to Parklands formula ,the amt. of fluid for resuscitation in 24hrs.
a)5L
b)10L
c)12L
d)14L
16)Investigation of choice for DVT is
a)Duplex
b)Venogram
c)MRI
c)radioisotope scan
17)After closed reduction of supracondylar fracture of humerus, flexion greater than 90 degree
causes disappearance of radial pulse. The next line of management is
a)Conservative
b)Exploration for arterial rupture
c)Keep elbow at 90 in cast
d)Open reduction & internal fixation.
18)Open reduction & fixation does all except
a)consolidation
b)Stability
c)better function
d)Better alignment
19) In fracture shaft of femur, which nail is commonly used for ORIF
a)Kuntshner nail
b)Austin Moore pine
c)K. wire
d)Smith Peterson nail
20)Soap Bubble appearance is seen
a)Giant cell tumor
b)osteoclastoma
c)
d)
21)Snow storm appearance on CXR is seen in
a)anthracosis
b)asbestosis
c)Silicosis
d)Bagassosis
22)Housemaid Knee is inflammation of
a)prepatellar bursa
b)Suprapatellar bursa
c)Infrapatellar bursa
d)anserine bursa
23) Height increase in adolescent/year is
a)8.5 cm
b)9.5
c)10.5
d)13.5
24)Patient with genotype XO will have following phenotype except
a)Tall stature
b)Broad Chest
c)Webbed neck
d)Lymphedema
25)treatment of carcinoma thyroid using radioactive iodine is
a) I131
b) I125
c) I133
26) solitary nodule of thyroid in a male aged 40yr from a non-endemic area would most likely
have
a)MNG
b)papillary ca Thyroid
c)follicular ca
d)
27)In assessment of gestational age of a neonate the following all seen except
a)Breast bud
b)Ocular
c)Genitalia
d)scrotal skin
28)On USG, the appendix is seen, it is most likely due to
a)Retrocecal appendix
b)Acute appendicitis
d)preileal appendix
29)Vesicular lesion is seen in
a)Primary syphilis
b)secondary syphilis
c)tertiary syphilis
d)congenital syphilis
30)In villous adenoma of rectum which of the following is seen
a) Hypokalemia
b)Hyperkalemia
c)hypochloremic alkalosis
d)
31)The best view on X-ray to view pituitary fossa is
a)lateral skull X-ray
b)Towne's view
c)schuller's view
d)
32)Supratendinitis calcification is due to deposition of
a)Ca2+ pyrophosphate
b) Ca2+ hydroxyapatite
c)Ca2+ oxalate
d)
33) all the following are beta-blockers except
a)Esmolol
b)sotalol
c) celiprolol
d)bambuterol
34)Unpleasant dreams and hallucinations occur after which anesthesia
a)Ketamine
b)Halothane
c)thiopentone
d)
35)Longest acting antihistamine is
a)Cetrizine
b)Astemizole
c)terfenadine
d)acrivastive
36) The most common carcinoma of sinuses is
a) squamous cell carcinoma
b) adeno carcinoma
c) transitional cell carcinoma
d)
38) All are specific to TB except
a) Epituberculosis
b) Phlycten
c) Erythema nodosum
d) lupus vulgaris
39) The following macrolides are used for toxoplasmosis except
a) Erythromycin
b) clarithromycin
c) Azithromycin
d) spiramycin
40) Following are third generation cephalosporins except
a) cefuroxime
b) ceftriaxone
c) ceftazidime
d) cefotaxime
41) The mechanism of action of cephalosporin is
a) interferes with cell wall synthesis
b) inhibition of DNA gyrase
c)
d)
42) Evidence of ovulation has occurred is all except
a) 10 mm graffian follicles on USG**
b) progesterone > 5ng/ml
c) corpus luteum
d) Biphasic increase in temperature
43) Objective evidence of hearing loss is all except
a) pure tone audiometry
b) BAER
c) otoacoustic emission
d)
44) Vestibular anus is
a) imperforate anus
b) high anorectal
c) low anorectal
d) mid anorectal
45) Brawny swelling below the angle of mandible likely diagnosis is
a) Vincent's angina
b) Ludwig's angina
c) ranula
d) hydrocele of neck
46) Apraxia is
a) normal sensory system, normal motor system, abnormal cerebellar system
b) normal sensory system, abnormal motor system, normal cerebellar system
c) abnormal sensory system, normal motor system, normal cerebellar system
d) normal sensory system, normal motor system, normal cerebellar system
47) Alexythymia is
a) inability to express ones own emotion
b)
c)
d)
48) Akathesia is
a)
b) a state motor or verbal restlessness
c) cogwheel rigidity
d)
49)infantile autism is seen in
a) dysthymic personality
b) personality disorder
b) paranoid personality
d) behavioral disorder
50) In pulmonary embolism, the receptor involving causing reflex hyperventilation is
a) J-receptor
b) slow adapting receptor
c) fast adapting receptor
d) Irritant receptors
51) Cazt** channel defect is seen in
a) hypokalemic periodic paralysis
b) hyperkalemic periodic paralysis
c) paramyotonia congenita
d)
52) Which is not an aldolase
a) glucose
b) Mannose
c) fructose
d) starch
53) Excitatory neurotransmitter in brain is
a) GABA
b) Glycine
c) glutamate
d) Aspartate
54) Enlarged adenoid causes the following complications except
a) CSOM
b) maxillary sinusitis
c)
d)
55) In an elderly hypertension patient with arteriosclerosis renin level in blood will be
a) high
b) low
c) normal
d) not related to HT
56) A patient comes with recurrent abdominal pain, and urinary examination reveals Ehrlich
aldehyde test (+) for urobilonogens. The diagnosis is
a) porphyria
b) renal calculi
c) cholelithiasis
d)
57) In urticaria pigmentosa, the cell most commonly seen in skin on microscopy is
a) Mast cell
b) Langerhan's cell
c) Langhan's cell
d)
58)lagopathalmos is seen in
a) leprosy
b) syphilis
c) peripheral neuritis
d) HZV infection
59) Topical steroids is used in
a) Interstitial keratitis
b) bacterial keratitis
c) pendrotic
d) herpetic
60) An elderly male with dry skin and fissuring scaly skin is likely to have
a) nummular eczema
b) venous eczema
c) asteatotic eczema
d)
61) In myasthenia gravis, true is
a) antibody is present against nicotinic receptor
b) decreased Acetylcholine release
c) decreased no of receptors
d) end organ resistance
 62) Insulin sensitivity increases on following treat except
a) metformin
b) acarbose
c) exercise
d) fasting
63) All the following are anticonvulsants except
a) lamotrigine
b) methyl phenytoline
c) vigabatrin
d) topiramate
64) Side effect of valvular heart disease is seen with
a) fenfluramine
b) methylphenidate
c) amphetamine
d)
65) Side effect of acute pancreatitis is due to following anti HIV drugs
a) lamivudine
b) zidovudine
c) didanosine
d)
66) "milk spots" on the omentum consists of
a) macrophage
b) neutrophils
c) lymphocyte
d)
67) longest acting muscle relaxant is
a) pancuronium
b) mivacurium
c) vecuronium
d)
68)Genital prolapse in a female can be due to all except
a) Ascites
b)complete perineal tear
c) chronic cough
d)
69) Tubal patency test is done by which test?
a) sion test
b) frei's test
c) bonney's test
d) three swab test
70) cells are most susceptible to radiation in which phase
a) M phase
b) G2 phase
c) G1 phase
d) S phase
Ans. Ref:
71) end product of ?- hydroxylation is
a) Acetyl CoA + propionyl CoA
b) Acetyl CoA + succinyl CoA
c) Acetyl CoA +
d) Acetyl CoA + malonyl CoA
72) Morrison pouch is
a) subphrenic space
b) posterior to lateral lobe of liver
c) lesser sac
73) hemoptysis in mitral stenosis is due to
a) Pulmonary arterial hypertension
b) Pulmonary arterial hypertension + left atrial hypertension
c) Left ventricular pressure
d)
74) In massive pericardial effusion all are seen except a) on fluoroscopy less prominent vascular
marking
b) CT ratio >0.5
c) CP angles acute
d) Plethoric pulmonary fields
75) single plate coated with ammonium***** is present in all except
a) X-ray
b) MMR
c) CT scan
d) USG film
76)Best view on x-ray to view bilateral auditory oscines /Eustachian tubes? is
a) occipito frontal
b) fronto occipital
c) submento vertical
d)
77) best view for pituitary fossa on x-ray is
a) lateral skull x-ray
b)
c) sella view
d)
78) Gram negative antigen is injected in a rabbit after 2 weeks****question not complete****
a) schwartzmann reaction- ans
b) Schultz-dale phenomenon
c) P-K-reaction
d)
79) The most common cause of spasm of psoas in childhood is
a) trauma
b) tuberculosis psoas
c) acute appendicitis
d) pyogenic psoas abscess
80) which leucotriene is the adhesion factor for the neutrophil on the cell surface to attach
endothelium
a) B4
b) C4
c)D4
d) E4
81) In the following conditions, bone matrix is reduced except
a) osteoporosis
b) osteomalacia
c) hyperparathyroidism
d) osteopetrosis
discuss tips or queries at message board(a new window will open)
82) which one is FAD dependent reaction
a) succinyl CoA fumarate
b)
c) d)
83) which of the following is formed by the intestinal mucosal cells on absorption of dietary lipids
a) chylomicrons
b) VLDL
c) HDL
d) LDL
84) high risk factor for coronary artery diseases are all except
a) low homocysteine level
b) cholesterol > 250 mg
c)
d)
85) In osteomalacia, all the following seen except
a) looser zones
b) high alkaline phosphate levels
c)
d)
86) In a patient with solitary nodule of thyroid, investigation of choice is
a) FNAC
b) USG
c) CT
d) Radioisotope scan
87) how many double bonds are present in arachidonic acid?
a) One
b) two
c) Three
d) Four
88) In elective tracheostomy, incision is taken on
a) cricothyroid membrane
b) C1 & C2
c) c2 & c4
d)
89) Autoinduction of biotransformation and action as a hormone is seen in
a) carbamazepine
b) cimetidine
c) corticosteroid.
90) G-6-P-D inheritance is
a) X-linked - recessive
b) autosomal dominant
c) autosomal recessive
d) x linked dominant
91) oral hairy leucoplakia & whitish plaque on the tongue and palate seen gives clue to most
likely diagnosis of
a) HIV infection
b) HTLV - 1
c) infectious mononucleosis
d)
92) most common organism causing spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is
a) staphylococcus
b)
c) salmonella
d) streptococcus
93) symblepharon is caused by
a) diphtheria
b) gonococci
c) chlamydia
d) opthalmia neonatorum
94) jargon aphasia is seen in
a) wenicke's
b) broca's aphasia
c) conduction aphasia
95) In koraskoff psychosis seen is
a) global deterioration intelligence
b) impaired recall & new ability to learn
c)
d)
96) multiple calcification in the brain or cystic calcification in the brain or comma shaped
calcification seen in
a) CMV
b) neurocysticercosis
c) tuberous sclerosis
d) toxoplasmosis
97)On CT scan, all are seen as hypodense area except
a) cerebral hemorrhage
b) glioblastoma
c) cerebral edema
d) cerebral infarct
98) hypertensive bleed mostly occurs in
a)putamen
b) pons
c) cortex
d) thalamus
99) back-wash ileitis is seen in
a) crohn's diseases
b) ulcerative colitis
c)
d)
100) leukemoid reaction type 2 in leprosy is due to
a) type I hypersensitivity
b) Type II hypersensitivity
c)type III hypersensitivity
d) type IV hypersensitivity
101) systematic desensitization as form of therapy is done in
a) phobia
b) obsessive compulsive disorder
c)
d)
102) morbid jealousy is seen in
a) alcoholism
b) persons who are isolated from society
c)
d)
103) respiratory alkalosis is seen in
a) duodenal obstruction
b) early salicylism
c) diarrhea
d)
104) dopamine is highest in
a)striatum
b) cerebellum
c) caudate
d)
105) IL-1 & TNF ? causes
a) increasing capillary permeability
c) acute phase reactants
b) chemotaxis
d) activate endothelium
106) thimble pitting nails are seen in
a) psoriasis
b) tinea versicolor
c)lichen planus
d)tuberculosis
107) Ridley-Jopling classification includes all except
a) lepromatous leprosy
b) borderline borderline
c) tuberculoid
d) neuritic
108) which of the following is type IV hyper sensitivity
a)
b)
c)
d) contact dermatitis
109) Pressure necrosis which causes venous flow to stop during endotracheal intubation occurs
at
a) 20 - 30 mm Hg
b) 15 - 20 mm Hg
c) 30-40 mm Hg
d) 16 -15 mm Hg
110) diagnosis of mucopolysacharridoses can be done by examination of
a) cornea
b) skin
c) bone
d) face
111) cadaveric position of vocal cords occurs in
a) recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
b) recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy + superior laryngeal nerve palsy
c)
d)
112) most common site of pelvic abscess is in
a) ishiorectal fossa
b) perianal
c)
d)
113) most important sensory organ in the ampulla is
a) organ of corti
b) macula
c)otolithi
d) crista
114) carotid body baroreceptor is most sensitive to
a)mean blood pressure
b) diastolic blood pressure
c) systolic blood pressure
d) Pulse pressure
115) the following are derived from endoderm except
a) liver
b) kidney
c) pancreas
d)urinary bladder
116)human placenta is
a) hemochorial
b) endothen - esdothelima
c) chorio - endothelial
d)
117)In malaria acquired by transfusion, the infective form is
a) sporozoites
b) shistozoites
c) gametocytes
d) merozoites
118) inhibition of prolactin is caused by
a) dopamine
b) dobutamine
c)
d)
119) In after coming, head best forceps used for delivery is
a) piper's forceps
b) kielland's forceps
c) wrigley' forceps
d)
120) longest diameter of the skull is
a) suboccipital bregmatic
b) occipital frontal
c) bitemporal
d) biparietal
121)bishop score is used to evaluate
a) cervix status
b) uterine contraction
c) fetal well being
d)
122) the management of eclampsia includes all except
a) control of convulsion
b) prolongation of pregnancy
c) control of BP
d) delivery of fetus
123) The most common cause of vesicovaginal fistula in developing countries is
a) pressure necrosis of urethra during obstructed labor
b) forceps delivery
c)
d)
124) shoulder dystocia occurs in delivery of fetus with
a) anencephaly
b) hydrocephalus
c) fetal ascites
d)
125) benign prost hyperplasia occur in the
a) periurethral transitional zone
b) cortex
c) posterior lobe
d)
126) tetany is seen in all except
a) hypoparathyroidism
b) full strength milk given in neonate
c)
d)
127) benign intracranial hypertension is seen in all except
a) hypertvitaminosis A
b) steroid therapy
c) OCP
d)
128) the most common breech presentation in a nulliparous woman is
a) frank breech
b) complete breech
c) footling
d)
129) In supra condylar fracture, the x-ray view of which helps in the next line of management
a) baumman's angle
b) cobb's angle
c) cowen's angle
d)
discuss tips or queries at AIPPG message board(a new window will open)
130) calculate the pearl index if 6 pregnancy occurs in 1200 females practicing contraception for
1 year
a) 6
b) 12
c) 18
d) 24
131) In minilap procedure, the most common method successfully used is
a) uchida
b) pomeroy's
c)irving's
d)
132) deep transverse arrest occurs in
a) android
b) anthropoid
c) gynecoid
d) flat pelvis
133) false positive rinne's test occur in
a) unilateral conductive deafness
b) unilateral sensory neural deafness
c) bilateral conductive deafness
d) bilateral sensory neural deafness
134) A nulliparous female aged 30 years develops IInd degree UV prolapse. The operative
procedure done is
a) cervicopexy
b)LeForte
c)Manchester
135) following are true of hemorrhoids except
a) they are arteriolar dilatations
b) they are common causes of painless bleeding
c) they cannot be per rectally palpated
136) waves on EEG during NREM period of sleep is
a) alpha
b) beta
c) delta
d) theta
137) following is true of hormone leptin except
a) it is found in increased levels in obese
b) it's site of action is hypothalmus
c) it is produced by adipose all
d) it increases appetite.
138) function of brown fat is
a) glycogenosis
b) gluconeogenesis
c)
d) thermogenesis
139) The most common cause for stridor in the early day of life is
a) laryngomalacia
b)esophago- tracheal fistula
c) laryngeal stenosis
d)
140) commonest sources of lead to cause increased blood level is from
a) air
b) lead paints
c) water
d)
141) The incisura of arterial pulse corresponds with
a)S1
b) S2
c) opening snap
4) S3
142) the one organism which is responsible for coronary artery disease
a) chlamydia
b) klebsiella
c) E coli
d) mycoplasma
143) to build a genome library using digested chromosome into fragments, the enzyme used is
a) DNA polymerase
b) RNA restriction endonuclease
d)
144) all the following are suggestive of urethral injury except
a) blood at meatus
b) haematoma of scrotum
c) high prostate on PR
d) blood in rectum
145) to assess the refraction state of eye, the investigation done is
a) USG - Bscan
b) retinoscopy
c) binoculoscopy
d) opthalmoscopy
146) which of the following has the worst prognosis
a) rolandic epilepsy
b) versive epilepsy
c) absence epilepsy
d)
Ans. Ref:
147) which of the following has worst prognoses in carcinoma lung
a) squamous cell carcinoma
b) large cell carcinoma
c) small cell carcinoma
d)adenocarcinoma
148) Herbert's pit is seen in
a) vernal conjunctivitis
b) atopic conjunctivitis
c) gonococcal conjunctivitis
d)chlamydial conjunctivitis
149) the amount of rads required for treatment of oropharyngeal carcinoma is
a) 3000 - 4000 rads
b) 4000- 5000 rads
c) 5000 - 6000
d) 6000 - 7000
150) prolonged ST segment with T wave seen in
a) hypokalemia
b) hyperkalemia
c) hypomagnesemia
d) hypocalcemia
151) In a meconium aspirated baby following are investigations. pO2=50, pCO2=60 & blood
pH=7.1. the next line of management of giving I V infusion to correct this condition is
a) NAHCO3 solution
b) ringer lactate
c) CPAP
d) endotracheal intubation & IPPV
152) which of the following hormones increase during sleep
a) insulin
b) ACTH
c) GH
d) melatonin
153) bromocriptine is used to suppress prolactin
a) acts as agonist to dopamine receptors
b)
c)
d)
154) in chronic folliculitis the treatment of choice is
a)
b)
c) cloxacillin
d) vancomycin
Ans. Ref:
155) on X-ray calcification of breast is seen. Likely cause is
a) chronic breast abscess
b) tuberculosis of breast
c) periductal carcinoma
d)
156) epidermolysis bullosa is due to
a) autoimmune disease
b) atopic disease
c) infective agent
d) genetic fragility of skin
157) A child suffering from marasmus was given high protein diet. The metabolic change likely is
a) hyperargininemia
b) hyperammonemia
c) hyperlysinemia
d) hypernatremia.
158) the ORS fluid used for a marasmic child lacks in (racemol)
a) amino acids
b) sodium
c) copper
d) magnesium
159) which of the following cell has both T lymphocyte and B lymphocyte function
a) plasma cell
b) T- lymphoblast cell
c)B-lymphoblast cell
d) NK cell
160) salmonella osteomyelitis occurs in
a) sickle cell d
b) beta thalassemia
c) sideroblastic anemia
d)
161) following are louse borne disease
a) endemic typhus
b) KFD
c) lyme's disease
d)
162) the treatment of choice in angiofibroma is a 12 year old boy is
a) radio treatment
b) chemo treatment
c) embolisation of inferior palatine artery
d) surgery
discuss tips or queries at AIPPG message board(a new window will open)
163) A young women, 30 yrs old complains of pain in the left knee joint which increases after
exercise since 4 months. An x-ray shows eccentric bone cyst. The likely diagnosis is
a) aneurysmal bone cyst
b) unicameral bone cyst
c)
d)
164) The term family size in demographic parlance means
a) the total number of children a women has borne at a point of time
b) the total number of children of couples
c) the total number of children by women borne in a female between 15- 45 yrs
Ans. Ref:
165) the approximate magnitude of completed family size from demographic point view is given
by
a) TFR
b) GFR
c)NRR
166) the following should be done for prophylaxis of rabies in a 1 year old child except
a) wash the wound with soap & water
b) give HDCV in the buttock
c) HDCV should not be given to HIV pt
d)
167) all the following are examples of health promotion except
a) stop smoking
b) regular exercise
c) chemoprophylaxis
168) one of the following helps deliver baby in a community
a) health assistant female
b) anganwadi worker
c) health supervisor
d) village health guide
169) Least recurrence of peptic ulcer most commonly occurs in
a) selective vagotomy
b) TV + GJ
c) Pure gastroenterostomy
d) TV+ antrectomy
170) CABG has successful outcome and prognosis if done in
a) double vessel obstruction
b) left coronary artery obstruction without left ventricular dysfunction
c) single vessel obstruction
171) anteversion of uterus is due to following ligament
a) uterosacral ligament
b) mackenrod's ligament
c)
d)
172) osteochondroma is a disease of
a)metaphysis
b) diaphysis
c) epiphysis
d) periosteum
173) the characteristic symptom of dysmenorrhea , menorrhagia, recurrent abdominal pain and
infertility is suggestive of
a) endometriosis
b) ectopic
c) endometritis
d)
174) testicular seminoma, secretes
a) ? -FP
b) CEA
c) B-HCG
d)
175) the concentration of HbA1c in blood is
a) 4-6%
b) 6-8%
c) 8-9%
d)
176) which of the following is contraindicated in early pregnancy
a) heparin
b) phenytoin
c) chlor****
d) penicillin
177) action potential is transmitted to myofibrils via
a) terminal cisterns
b) T- Tubules
c) longitudinal
d) sarcomere
178) humidification of O2 is required in
a) nasopharyngeal intubation
b) nasal prong
c) nasal catheter
d) face mask
179) meconium plug syndrome occurs in
a) meconium ileus
b) hirschsprung's disease
c) ileo-colic pouch
d)
180) the cause of endemic ascites is
a) BOAA
b) Sanguinarine
c) Pyrozzilodine alkaloids
d)
181) earliest sign of vitamin A deficiency is
a) conjunctival xerosis
b) corneal xerosis
c) bitot's spot
d)nightblindness
182) Pinta is caused by
a) T pertenue
b) T pallidum
c) T carateum
d) Borrelia burgdorferi.
183) all the following cause priapism except
a) trauma
b) Beta thalassemia
c) sickle cell disease
d) leriche syndrome
184) iridectomy is done in which type of glaucoma is
a)
c) angle closure
b)
d) open glaucoma
185) yellow fever is not present in India because of all except
a) the virus is absent
b) the vector mosquito culex vishnui
c) atmospheric condition is suitable
186) phage typing is useful in classification of all except
a) staphylococcus
b) streptococcus
c) cholera
d) salmonella
187)in a patient with strikingly abnormal behavior , the most likely diagnosis is
a) paranoid schizophrenia
b) catatonic schizophrenia
c) hebephrenic schizophrenia
d)
188)the revised national TB program uses one of the following for diagnosis of TB
a) sputum AFB
b) CXR
c) clinical examination
d) PCR
189) following are true of rubella except
a) IP: 14-21days
b) rosy red spots on palate
c) encephalitis
190) Acrodynia occurs in
a) mercury poisoning
b) arsenic poisoning
c) lead poisoning
d)
191) hydrotherapy is done in
a) impotence
b) infertility
c) febrile convulsion
d)
192) hemodialysis is useful in all except
a) salicylate poisoning
b) methyl alcohol poisoning
c) digitalis
d) barbiturate
193) proliferation of mesangial cell & perimesangial on microscopy is seen in
a) lg A nephropathy
b) lipoid nephrosis
c) membranoproliferative disease
d) membranous glomerulonephritis
194) point prevalence of a chronic disease is studied best by
a) case control study
b) cross sectional study
c) historical cohort
d) cohort
195) reversible cataract is seen in which of following
a) galactosemia
b) hypoparathyroidism
c) diabetes mellitus
d)
196) De quervain's thyroiditis is due to all except
a) it is due to virus
b) antibodies against follicular cells
c) it is self limited granulomatous thyroiditis
197)partial prothromboplastin time is prolonged in all except
a) protein C deficiency
b) protein S deficiency
c) antithrombin III deficiency
d) factor V deficiency
198) which of the following has least t1/2
a) norepinephrine
b) adrenaline
c) renin
d)
199) the treatment of primary ovarian failure is
a) FSH
b) GnRH
c)LH
d)estrogen progesterone
200)LDL cholesterol in blood recommended to prevent coronary artery disease is
a)130mg/dl
b)160mg/dl
c)100mg/dl
d)180mg/dl

Share This