RRB AJMER ASM Solved Question Paper 2009

Exam Board : RRB
Question Paper Year : 2009

RRB AJMER ASM SOLVED PAPER 2009

1. The Buland Darwaja is related to

(1) Shershah

(2) Babur

(3) Akbar

(4) Jehangir

Ans. (3)

2. The Military Games were held in Hyderabad from October 17, 2007 to October 27, 2007.Which

country won the highest number of medals?

(1) China

(2) Russia

(3) India

(4) Japan

Ans. (2)

3. The Railways gets the maximum income from

(1) Goods freight

(2) Passenger’s fares

(3) Advertisement

(4) None of these

Ans. (1)

4. What is sound?

(1) Energy

(2) Heat

(3) Magnet

(4) Ray

Ans. (1)

5. The chief source of heat energy is

(1) Sun light

(2) Biogas

(3) Electricity

(4) Natural gas

Ans. (1)

6. The Aravalli hills are located in

(1) Madhya Pradesh

(2) Rajasthan

(3) Assam

(4) Jharkhand

Ans. (2)

7. A plant can be disease resistant due to

(1) Pesticides

(2) Virus

(3) Fungi

(4) Bacteria

Ans. (1)

8. Which of the following Chief Ministers served for the longest tenure?

(1) Lalu Prasad

(2) Jyoti Basu

(3) Ms. Mayawati

(4) M. Karunanidhi

Ans. (2)

9. Which of the following straits separates Europe from Africa?

(1) Berring

(2) Dobar

(3) Gibralter

(4) Mulucca

Ans. (3)

10. The UN Climate Change conference was organized in Bali from December 3, 2007 to December 14,

2007 for 12 days in which 1000 people participated .Bali is situated in

(1) Indonesia

(2) Malaysia

(3) Morocco

(4) China

Ans. (1)

11. The description of caste system is found in

(1) Rig Veda

(2) Sam Veda

(3) Yajurva Veda

(4) Atharva Veda

Ans. (1)

12. Who is called the Akbar of Kashmir?

(1) Janulabeddin

(2) Sikandar

(3) Queen Didda

(4) Emperor Sangram Singh

Ans. (1)

13. The Border Road Organization comes under

(1) Defense

(2) Urban Development

(3) Corporate sector

(4) Private sector

Ans. (1)

14. Which of the following corporations was started first by the Government of India?

(1) Damodar Valley Corporation

(2) National Thermal Power Corporation

(3) National Hydel Power Corporation

(4) All the above

Ans. (1)

15. Which of the following is not a part of three gems of the Buddhism?

(1) Buddha

(2) Sangha

(3) Dhamma

(4) Ahimsa

Ans. (4)

16. Who was the first Indian to reach Antarctica?

(1) Rakesh Sharma

(2) G.S. Sirohi

(3) B.K. Dutta

(4) K. Karuna Nautial

Ans. (2)

17. A saturated solution at S.T.P. is

(1) Colorless

(2) Green

(3) Red

(4) Red and green

Ans. (1)

18. The pure element in the following is

(1) Glass

(2) Diamond

(3) Lime

(4) Salt

Ans. (2)

19. What is gypsum?

(1) Lime

(2) Bleaching powder

(3) Blue vitriol

(4) Ammonium chloride powder

Ans. (3)

20. Bones of horses of Harappan civilization were found at

(1) Lothal

(2) Harappa

(3) Surkotada

(4) Mohanjodero

Ans. (3)

21. What is Ag-mark?

(1) Technique to increase agricultural productivity

(2) Green Revolution

(3) Test of purity in the production of vegetable oil etc.

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

22. Who has taken the highest number of wickets in Test Cricket?

(11) Muttiah Muralitharan

(2) Shane Warne

(3) Anil Kumble

(4) Shoaib Akhtar

Ans. (1)

23. In 1947, 532 princely states were annexed to India except three. Which of the following was not

among the three princely states?

(1) Junagarha

(2) Bhavnagar

(3) Hyderabad

(4) Kashmir

Ans. (4)

24. Which of the following gases is used to prepare Ammonia gas?

(1) Nitrogen and oxygen

(2) Nitrogen and oxide

(3) Nitrogen and hydrogen

(4) Nitrogen and carbon

Ans. (3)

25. In which of the following states of India, per capita income is highest?

(1) Orissa

(2) Assam

(3) Manipur

(4) Kerala

Ans. (4)

26. By import of — the inflation has been caused in India?

(1) Wheat

(2) Rice

(3) Sugar

(4) Petroleum

Ans. (4)

27. The meeting of Commonwealth Nations was held in Uganda on November 25, 2007. Who was

elected its General Secretary?

(1) Mahesh Sharma

(2) Kamlesh Sharma

(3) Bimalesh Sharma

(4) Kailash Sharma

Ans. (2)

28. In which country the Hindu temples were razed to the ground in

December, 2007?

(1) Indonesia

(2) Malaysia

(3) Mauritius

(4) Afghanistan

Ans. (2)

Directions (29 — 33) : Read the following passage carefully and then answer the following questions on

the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage by choosing the best answer to each question out of

given four options.

On hearing the news of the massacre at Jallianwala Bagh, Udham Singh did not attend his school but

took a train to Armritsar and visited the spot. There, he stood for several minutes in a trance, picked up

the soil, rubbed it on his forehead and put some in a phial. He fasted that night. According to his family

members he placed fresh flowers on the holy dust every morning, drawing inspiration from it. One early

morning he went to the river Ravi and pledged that he would Colour its waters with the colour of his

blood, to create what he called the freedom’s flood. With this aim in view in 1921, he first landed in

Africa. From there he went to America to meet the Indian revolutionaries working for the liberation of

the motherland.

In 1923, he landed in England. In 1928, he returned to India in response to an urgent call from Bhagat

Singh. When he reached Lahore, he was detained for violation of the Arms Act. He was released after

four years rigorous imprisonment. In 1935, he escaped to Germany by giving a slip to the police. From

Berlin, he reached Paris and purchased a revolver. He kept it ready for action and managed to reach

London again. Opportunity came on March 13, 1940 when Sir Michael O’ Dwyer was to speak at a

seminar in the Caxton Hall. As Sir Michael turned to resume his seat after the speech. Udham Singh

pulled out his revolver and fired at him, Sir Michael died without a shriek. Udham

Singh was arrested and produced before the court on April 2, 1940. The court passed death sentence on

him and he was hanged at Pentonville Prison, London on July 3, 1940.

29. Udham Singh went to America where he

(1) mobilized the Indian citizens for the liberation of the motherland

(2) collected sufficient funds to fight colonialism

(3) met fellow citizens working for the same cause

(4) went sight-seeing

Ans. (3)

30. Where did Udham Singh buy the weapon which was used for killing Sir Michael?

(1) Paris

(2) Lahore

(3) London

(4) Berlin

Ans. (1)

31. Udham Singh shot at Sir Michael O’Dwyer in

(1) Jallianwala Bagh

(2) Armritsar

(3) London

(4) Paris

Ans. (3)

32. When Udham Singh was arrest ed in Lahore, he was charged for

(1) instigating his countrymen against the Englishmen

(2) his links with anti-British forces

(3) concealing his identity and carrying on underground activities

(4) possessing unlicensed arms and ammunition

Ans. (4)

33. Udham Singh returned to India in 1928 mainly because he was:

(1) short of funds to meet his expenses

(2) to produce some arms from Lahore

(3) to escape from the British police

(4) called by a revolutionary in India

Ans. (4)

34. In the following question a word has been spelt in four different ways one of which is correct.

Choose the correctly spelt word:

(1) Assemblage

(2) Asemblage

(3) Assemmblage

(4) Accemblage

Ans. (1)

35. In the following sentence, fill in the blank by choosing correct option from the given alternatives

The documents are available ? inspection.

(1) of

(2) about

(3) with

(4) for

Ans. (4)

36. In the following question, choose the Adjective.

(1) Preference

(2) Gifted

(3) Genius

(4) In vain

Ans. (2)

37. Write the synonym of the word ‘Consummate’.

(1) Novice

(2) Ambiguous

(3) Perfect

(4) Imperfect

Ans. (3)

38. Find out, which part of the following sentence has a grammatical or idiomatic error in it.

They have

(1)/held the championship

(2)/ since the past

(3)/ two years.

(4)

Ans. (3)

39. In the following question, a word has been spelt in four different ways, one of which is correct.

Choose the correctly spelt word.

(1) demmurage

(2) demurrage

(3) demarrage

(4) demurage

Ans. (2)

40. In the following question, an idiomatic expression and its four possible meanings are given. Find out

the correct meaning of the idiomatic expression and choose your correct answer from the given four

choices:

Play one’s cards well

(1) A good gambler displaying skills

(2) A magician showing magic of cards

(3) Use means effectively

(4) A game of gamble

Ans. (3)

41. Out of the four alternatives, choose the one that can he substituted for .the given words/ phrase and

mark it as your answer.

A cock and bull story

(1) An unbelievable gossip

(2) A children’s fable

(3) A quarrelsome dialogue

(4) A competition between un equal people

Ans. (1)

42. Choose the part of the following sentence containing error and mark it as your answer:

The number of orders(1). /

for that item have(2). /

increased greatly; several of them(3). /

have come from Egypt(4).

Ans. (2)

43. Identify the part of the following sentence containing an error and choose it as your answer.

In America(1)/

Presidential elections(2) /

is held every four years(3)

No error(4)

Ans. (3)

44. In the following sentence, fill in the blank by choosing correct option from the given alternatives:

‘Ram has annoyed his boss. He ? have to leave the job.

(1) might

(2) will

(3) ought to

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

45. In the following question, three words having different meanings of a certain word are given. Select

that word from the answer choices marked (1), (2), (3) and (4).

Witness, Observer; Onlooker

(1) spectator

(2) present

(3) biased

(4) careful

Ans. (1)

46. For the following word written in capital letters, four words are listed below as (1),

(2) (3) and (4). Out of these, choose the word nearest in meaning to it as your answer:

VINDICATE

(1) approve

(2) justify

(3) express

(4) exonerate

Ans. (2)

47. In the following sentence, the bold part contains an error. Answer choice (1) repeats the original,

other three are 1ifferent. If you think that the original sentence displays the best way of wording the

bold part, choose your answer (1): otherwise select the best alternative from the other three choices.

“Parents and teachers are be coming increasingly concerned about protecting children and the drugs

which are available to them, and several parent teacher organizations, dedicated to educating children

about the dangers of drug addiction, have recently been formed.”

(1) protecting children and the drugs which are available to them

(2) protecting of children and the drugs which are available to them

(3) protecting children from the drugs available to them

(4) protecting children from the drugs availability to them

Ans. (3)

48. From the given four answer choices, select the answer that gives the clearest, most exact sentence,

but do not change the meaning Of the bold part of original sentence.

Such people never have and never will be trusted.

(1) never have and never will be trusted

(2) never have and will be trust ed

(3) never have been trusted and never will be trusted

(4) never have and anyone trust them and never will have anyone

Ans. (3)

49. Which one of the following statements is untrue?

(1) The sea-floor is older than the land

(2) The first rocks were formed as a result of the cooling o. molten matter

(3) Sedimentary rocks are also called aqueous rocks because they were formed by

the agency of water

(4) Stalactites and stalagmites are deposits of lime found in caves

Ans. (3)

50. The main hydro electric power potential of the Indus river system lies in India and not in Pakistan

because:

(1) the need for hydro-electric power is greater in India than in Pakistan

(2) India has superior technology to develop hydro—electric power

(3) India has a greater labour force to develop hydro electric power

(4) The mountain stages of these rivers lie in India

Ans. (4)

51. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List-I List-II

(a) Cotton 1. Madhya Pradesh

(b) Gram 2.Gujarat

(c) Black Pepper 3. West Bengal

(d) Pine apple 4. Kerala

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 4 3

(2) 2 1 3 4

(3) 1 2 4 3

(4) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (1)

52. In the production of tidal energy the maximum potential exists at:

(1) Bhavnagar

(2) Digboi

(3) Cochin

(4) Ladakh

Ans. (1)

53. The National Highway system is the responsibility of

(1) State governments

(2) Central governments

(3) Central and State governments

(4) Local body governments

Ans. (3)

54. Supersonic jets cause pollution by thinning of

(1) Sulphur dioxide layer

(2) Carbon dioxide layer

(3) Ozone layer

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

55. Which one of the following is commonly called Edible sponge mushroom’?

(1) Sargassum

(2) Morchella

(3) Agaricus

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

56. Which of the following is not an essential function of the skin in the human body?

(1) protects the internal or of the body

(2) acts as a sensory organ

(3) regulates the temperature of the body

(4) gives shape to the body

Ans. (4)

57. The device used for converting alternating current to direct current is called

(1) Inverter

(2) Rectifier

(3) Transmitter

(4) Transformer

Ans. (2)

58. Water is used in hot water bottles because:

(1) it is easily obtained in pure form

(2) it has high specific heat

(3) it is cheaper and not harmful

(4) it is easy to heat water

Ans. (2)

59. Mention the ray which appears to originate outside the earth.

(1) cosmic ray

(2) the ultra-violet ray

(3) the alpha ray

(4) the beta ray

Ans. (1)

60. A person cannot see objects clearly which are nearer than 75 cms from his eyes. What disease is he

suffering from?

(1) Astigmatism

(2) Colour-blindness

(3) Myopia

(4) Hypermetropia

Ans. (4)

61. Oil rises up to wick in a lamp because

(1) oil is volatile

(2) oil is very light

(3) of the surface tension phenomenon

(4) of the diffusion of oil through the wick

Ans. (3)

62. Following Railway Training Institutes have been indicated with the cities where they are located.

Find out which is wrongly matched.

(1) Railway Staff College — Vadodara

(2) Indian Railway Institute of Civil Engineering — Pune

(3) Indian Railway Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering —Jamalpur

(4) Indian Railway Institute Signal and Tele Communication Engineering — Mumbai

Ans. (4)

63. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given four options:

List -I List-II

(Zonal Railway) (Head Quarter)

(a) North Central Railway 1. Bilaspur

(b) South-East Central Railway 2. Allahabad

(c) West Central Railway 3. Jabalpur

(d) East Coast Railway 4. Bhubaneshwar

Code.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 3 4

(2) 1 2 3 4

(3) 2 3 4 1

(4) 4 1 3 2

Ans. (1)

64. In Indian Railways Network, approximately how many passenger service vehicles (passenger

coaches) are working?

(1) 44,100

(2) 33.000

(3) 49,000

(4) 54,000

Ans. (2)

65. Who is the principal head of the Department of a Station Master in Zonal Railway Head Quarter

Office?

(1) Chief Commercial Manager

(2) Chief Safety Officer

(3) Chief Personnel Officer

(4) Chief Operations Manager

Ans. (4)

66. Two new zones named North Western Railway and East Central Railway become functional/

operational from?

(1) October 1, 2002

(2) April 1, 2002

(3) April 1, 2003

(4) October 1, 2003

Ans. (1)

67. In one of the following State, though the Konkan Railway line does not pass through it, yet it has

capital share in the K.R. Corporation. Name the State.

(1) Karnataka

(2) Goa

(3) Tamil Nadu

(4) Kerala

Ans. (3)

68. All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the Vice- President of India are decided by the

(1) High Court of a State

(2) Chief Election Commissioner

(3) Supreme Court of India

(4) President of India

Ans. (3)

69. Consider the following functionaries

1. Union Cabinet Secretary

2. Chief Election Commissioner

3. Union Cabinet Ministers

4. Chief Justice of India

Their correct sequence, in the order of precedence is

(1) 3, 4, 2, 1

(2) 4, 3, 1, 2

(3) 4, 3, 2, 1

(4) 3. 4, 1, 2

Ans. (3)

70. The basic structure theory of the Constitution of India implies that

(1) Certain features of the Constitution are so essential to it that they cannot be abrogated

(2) Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged or taken away

(3) The Constitution cannot be amended except in accordance with the procedure prescribed in Article

368

(4) The Preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended

Ans. (1)

71. Which of the following enjoys the constitutional status?

1. Finance Commission

2. Planning Commission

3. Zonal Council

4. National Development Council

5. Election Commission

6. University Grants Commission

(1) 1, 3 and 5

(2) l and 5

(3) 1, 2, 5 and 6

(4) 1, 3, 5 and 6

Ans. (2)

72. The ultimate responsibility of taking due action on the comments of the Comptroller and Auditor

General vests with

(1) President of India

(2) Supreme Court of India

(3) Parliament of India

(4) National Development Council

Ans. (1)

73. Mohit said to Neelam, “Your only brother’s son is my wife’s brother.” How is Neelam related to the

wife of Mohit?

(1) aunt

(2) mother-in-law

(3) sister

(4) cannot be determined

Ans. (1)

74. A tourist drives 10 km towards East and turns to right hand side and takes a drive of another 3 km.

He then drives towards West (turning to his right) another 3 km. He then turns to his left and walks

another 2 km. Afterwards, he turns to his right and travels 7 km. How far is he from his starting point

and in which direction?

(1) 10 km—East

(2) 9 km— North

(3) 8 km— West

(4) 5 km—South

Ans. (4)

75. The question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. Decide the ‘Strong’ and ‘Weak’

arguments and give answer out of four given options ‘1’, ‘2’, ‘3’ and ‘4’

Question:

Should all the professional colleges in India be encouraged to run their own courses without affiliation

to any university?

Arguments:

(I) Yes, this is the only way to create more opportunities for those who seek professional training.

(II) No, this will dilute the quality of professional training as all such colleges may not be equipped to

conduct such courses.

(1) Only argument I is strong

(2) Only argument II is strong

(3) Both I and II are strong

(4) Neither I nor II is strong

Ans. (2)

76. Statement: “Please do not wait for me; I may be late, start taking lunch as soon as the guests arrive.”

— a message from a director of a company to his office managers.-

Assumptions:

I. Keeping guests waiting is not desirable.

II. Lunch may not be ready in time.

Consider the above statement and two assumptions to decide as to which of the assumptions is implicit

in the statement. Choose the correct answer from the given options 1, 2, 3 and 4.

(1) Only assumption I is implicit

(2) Only assumption II is implicit

(3) Both I and II are implicit

(4) Neither I nor II is implicit

Ans. (1)

77. How many Asian countries are there in Common wealth?

(1) 49

(2) 51

(3) 54

(4) 57

Ans. (3)

78. Khan Abdul Gaffer Khan’s which action; performed in favour of Indian independence, but was

against the English men?

(1) Formation of Lal-Kurti sena

(2) Assassination of an Englishman

(3) Trade of red shirts

(4) Demand for Pakhtunistan

Ans. (1)

79. On selling an article for Rs. 270 there is a gain of 12.5%. What

is its cost price?

(1) Rs. 240

(2) Rs. 220

(3) Rs. 210

(4) Rs. 250

Ans. (1)

80. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1: 2: 3. The greatest angle will be

(1) 60°

(2) 30°

(3) 90°

(4) 75°

Ans. (3)

81. The compound interest on Rs. 2500 at the rate of 6% p.a. after 2 years will be

(1) Rs. 309

(2) Rs. 318

(3) Rs. 320

(4) None of these

Ans. (1)

82. (999)2 – (998)22=?

(1) 1995

(2) 1998

(3) 1997

(4) 1992

Ans. (3)

83. A man covers a distance of 6 km at the rate 4 kmph and other 4 km at 3 kmph. His average speed is

(1) 9&13/7 kmph

(2) 3&9/17 kmph

(3) 5&9/17 kmph

(4) 3 & 5/9 kmph

Ans. (2)

84. The cost price of an article is Rs. 7840. To gain 7%, the article should be sold at

(1) Rs. 8388.80

(2) Rs. 8000

(3) Rs. 8383.80

(4) Rs. 8833.80

Ans. (1)

85. Two pipes can fill a tank in 10 minutes and 30 minutes respectively and a third pipe can empty the

full tank in 20 minutes. If all the three pipes are opened simultaneously, the tank will be

(1) 10 minutes

(2) 8 minutes

(3) 7 minutes

(4) None of these

Ans. (4)

86.(4*4*4+3*3*3)/13 =

(1) 7

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 4

Ans. (1)

87. (6.25) 4÷ (6.25)3 =?

(1) 6.25

(2) 6.025

(3) 6.0025

(4) 6.002

Ans. (1)

88. The ratio between the ages of Ram and Mohan is 4:5 and that between Mohan and Anil is 5:6. If sum

of the ages of three be 90 years, how old is Mohan?

(1) 24 years

(2) 20 years

(3) 30 years

(4) 25 years

Ans. (3)

89. The per cent of 2 /45 is?

(1) 3&4/9 %

(2) 4&4/9 %

(3) 4 %

(4) 9 %

Ans. (2)

90. If a x=b;b y=c and cz =a , then xyz =?

(1) 1

(2) -1

(3) 2

(4) 2

Ans. (1)

91. Match the name of countries in List-I with years of beginning of railways in List-II and select the

correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List -I List—II

(Countries) (Year of beginning of railways)

(a) Britain 1. 1853

(b) America 2. 1829

(c) India 3. 1825

(d) France 4. 1830

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 4 3

(2) 4 1 3 2

(3) 3 4 1 2

(4) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (3)

92. The length of Indian rails is

(1) More than 5000 km

(2) More than 5630 km

(3) More than 6000 km

(4) More than 6531 km

Ans. (4)

93. Match the items of List-I with List-II and select the-correct answer by using the codes given below

the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Largest Population) (States)

(a) Jains 1. Nagaland

(b) Buddhas 2. Rajasthan

(c) Christians 3. Maharashtra

(d) Muslims 4. Lakshadwip

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 4 3

(2) 2 3 1 4

(3) 1 2 4 3

(4) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (2)

94. The capital of the king of Punjab Ranjit Singh was

(1) Lahore

(2) Ludhiana

(3) Mathura

(4) Sri Nagar

Ans. (1)

95. Photosynthesis does not take place in

(1) plants

(2) fungi

(3) bacteria

(4) virus

Ans. (4)

96. In nucleuic protein, Uceriotic chromosomes are alike in

(1) prophase

(2) Metaphase

(3) Anaphase -

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

97. Which type of protein is found in virus?

(1) Lyco protein

(2) Secondary protein

(3) Primary protein

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

98. In ionic solid, the velocity of electricity is

(1) fast

(2) weak

(3) less than solid

(4) less than gas

Ans. (1)

99. The largest phase in cell division is

(1) Liptotin

(2) Zagotin

(3) Pacotin

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

ICSE Pubic Exam English 2010 Question Papers

Exam Board: ICSE
Subject: English
Exam Year: 2010 Question Paper
Content type: text

Q. 1. Rewrite the following sentences according to instructions given after each.

1. He really likes correcting her English. ( use pleasure)
2. It's not necessary to take a lot of luggage when going on holiday. (use Much)
3. Perhaps he hasn't received the doctor's results yet ( use may)
4. All I want you to do is to look after my dog. ( use care)
5. She was not certain about the trip ( use decide)
6. He locked the gate so that the dog wouldn't escape. ( use prevent)
7. They did not like to pay extra taxes. ( use objected)
8. The day was so nice that we went on a picnic. ( use such)
9. The only person I didn't see was Jane. ( use except)
10. She decided to visit her friend and tell her the news. ( use drop)
11. It wasn't necessary to meet me at the airport yesterday. ( use needn't )
12. It was unkind of you to talk to her like that. ( use not)
13. I saw the film although I strongly dislike thrillers ( use spite)
14. It's not possible to play tennis because of the rain. ( use makes)
15. I've never tasted such good food before. ( use ever)
16. Do your parents allow you to watch TV late at night? ( use let)
17. "Did you write a note for Anna?" I asked my mother. ( use she)
18. He gave me the money first, and then he left. ( use after )
19. I don't find it difficult to get up early any more. ( use used)
20. We have to reduce our expenses. ( use cut )
21. "Can you please explain this to me?" she asked the teacher. ( use if)
22. Perhaps he's working late. ( use may)
23. Nobody ever told me about it. ( use never)
24. "I'll pick him up from the airport," she said. ( use offered)
25. I was so shocked that I couldn't react. ( use wasn't)
26. People say Greek is a difficult language to learn. ( use said)
27. The police have investigated the crime. ( use by)
28. Without your help, I would never have managed. ( use you )
29. The manager made the employees stay late. ( use made)
30. When can their glory fade? ( use never)

Q. 2. complete with the suitable prepositions:

1. The people are____the table____the dining room.
2. The stairs are____the bathroom____the second floor.
3. The bedroom is____the attic(room in roof) ____the third floor.
4. The washing machine is____the dryer.
5. The steps are in____ of the door.
6. The tools are____the peg(wooden nail) board.
7. The peg board is____the basement.
8. The basement is____ the house.
9. The cupboards are____ the counter.
10. The roof is____ the house.
11. The books are____the book case.
12. The woman is putting something____the oven.
13. The dresser is____the mirror.
14. The shelf is____the washing machine and table.
15. The box is____the table____the basement.
16. The dishes are____the china cabinet____the dining room.
17. The kitchen is____the first floor____the house.
18. The computer is____the room____the third floor____the attic
19. The play is____ Monday, ____ 9:30____ night
20. I study____ the morni8ng and work____ the afternoon.

Q. 1. ANSWERS:

1. He …takes pleasure in.. correcting her English.
2. You …don't need much / needn't take much / don't have to take much… luggage when going on holiday.
3. He ..may not have received.. the doctor's results yet.
4. All I want you to do is to ……take care of….. my dog.
5. She ……could not decide….. about the trip.
6. He locked the gate ……to prevent the dog (from).. escaping.
7. They ……objected to paying………. extra taxes.
8. It was …such a nice day…. that we went on a picnic.
9. I ………saw everyone except….. Jane.
10. She decided to …drop in on… her friend and tell her the news.
11. You ……needn't have met… me at the airport yesterday.
12. You …should not have talked… to her like that.
13. I saw the film in …spite of my strong dislike… of thrillers.
14. The rain ……makes it impossible…. to play tennis.
15. It is the …best food I've ever.. tasted.
16. Do your parents …let you watch…. TV late at night?
17. I asked my mother …whether/if she had written…. a note for Anna
18. He left ……after he had given me/after giving me….. the money.
19. I ……am used to getting…. up early.
20. The employees ……were made to stay late… by the manager
21. If ……you hadn`t helped me……. , I would never have managed.
22. The crime ……has been investigated by…… the police.
23. Greek ……is said to be a……. difficult language to learn.
24. I ………wasn't calm enough to…… react.
25. She …offered to pick him up….. from the airport.
26. I ………was never told…. about it.
27. He ……may be working…. late.
28. She asked the teacher ………if she could explain that……… to her.
29. We have to ………cut down on……….. our expenses.
30. Their glory can never fade

Q. 2. ANSWERS:

1. at , in
2. beside , on
3. under , on
4. beside
5. front
6. on
7. in
8. under
9. over
10. over
11. in
12. into
13. beside
14. between
15. on ,in
16. in ,in
17. on, in
18. in , on , below.
19. on , at ,at
20. in ,in

TNPSC: VAO Exam 2016 Tentative Answer Keys Download

Looking for VAO exam answer key 28.02.2016? You can here download tentative answer keys released by several private coaching centre. Get the download links below.

1. Vellore Vidiyal Coaching Centre- Answer keys download
2. Sri Malar Academy TNPSC VAO Exam 2016, Maths Answer Key- Click here to download
3. Jai Hind TNPSC VAO Exam 2016, Maths Answer Key - Click here download
4. Puthiya Vidiyal Coaching centre- TNPSC VAO Exam 2016 | General Tamil Key Answer download at click here

All the best!

The Hindu Young World Painting Contest: Last date extended to 06-3-2016

The Hindu organizes a painting contest for which paintings are invited from the young children. The students are grouped into two categories. Junior and Senior. Junior falls from the class IV to VI and seniors, from VII to IX. It is best opportunities to showcase the talents of art-paintings.

Topics of Juniors (Class IV to VI):
1. At the toy/pet store
2. Gully Cricket
3. Sunday family picnic
4. Cleaning my street
5. A day at the zoo
6. At the circus
7. Water birds
8. Scenes from a village
9. First visit to the public library
10. Summer activities

Topics for Seniors (Class from VII to IX):
1. Beach clean-up
2. Camping out
3. New Year carnival
4. Classical/rack music concert
5. Book fair
6. Underwater life
7. Portraits of emotions
8. If dinosaurs existed today
9. Domesticating the wild
10. Retelling your favorite fairly tall
11. Life without technology

For Registrations, go to, www.thehindu.com/ywpaintings

Last date for receipt of entries: 06th March 2016 [Previously it was 27th Feb 2016]

Finals will be held on 19th or 20th March 2016

Rush up your entries!

For rules and regulations, refer the following image:

Goa University: B.E Computer Engineering, Object Oriented Software Engineering 2014 Question Paper

Are you searching for Goa University Old Question Papers? You can here download B.E Computer Engineering Semester VI, Nov Dec 2014 Exam Question Paper for Object Oriented Software Engineering (OOSE).
Exam Board: Goa University

Course: B.E Computer Engineering

Subject: Object Oriented Software Engineering (OOSE)

Exam Year: 2014

Semester: VI

Attachments:

Thanks for visiting us to download Goa University: B.E Computer Engineering, Object Oriented Software Engineering 2014 Question Paper ! Do visit regularly for more updates...

ICSE Previous Years Solved Question Papers for English Subject

Are you looking for ICSE Solved Previous Years Question Papers? You can here download 2011, 2010 and 2009 Solved Exam Papers. The Grammar Questions are solved and presented here. Check out the question papers contents below. Also the latest question paper 2015 for English Paper-I is attached here. Download them and use for your X class board exam in 2016 and afterwards.

ICSE Question Paper 2015:

ICSE Solved Question Paper 2011

(a) Fill in each of the numbered blanks with the correct form of the word given in the brackets. Do not copy the passage, but write in correct serial order the word or phrase appropriate to the blank space:

Example:(0) We were not-------(allow) to talk during the lecture.

Answer: allowed

The children(1)-------(sit) in a neat circle(2)------(begin)(3)-------(copy) their multiplication tables. Most(4)-------(scratch) in the dirt with sticks they had(5)-------(bring) for that purpose. The more fortunate(6)-------(has) slate boards that they(7)------(write) on with sticks(8)------(dip) in a mixture of mud and water.

Answers: 1. sat; 2. began; 3. copying; 4. scratched; 5. brought; 6. had; 7. wrote; 8. dipping

(b) Fill in the blanks with more appropriate words:

(i) He congratulate me ------ my great achievement.

(ii) The poor man afflicted---------arthritis.

(iii) She is blind-------the faults of her husband.

(iv) The boss had many complaints-------Shyam.

(v) You must prepare well------ the examinations.

(vi) She is not aware-------the danger.

(vii) Ravi was accurate--------his calculations.

(viii) They hid the money-------the carpet.

Answers: (i) on; (ii) with; (iii) to; (iv) against; (v) for; (vi) of; (vii) with; (viii) under

(c) Join the following sentences to make one complete sentence without using and, but or so.

(i) The minister was wise. The king did not trust him.

Answers: Though the minister was wise, the king did not trust him.

(ii) We reached the port. The storm came on.

Answers: When we reached the port, the storm came on.

(iii) One should not borrow money. One should not lend money.

Answers: One should neither borrow or lend money.

(iv) She will win the prize. She deserves it.

Answers: She will win the prize as she deserves it.

(d) Rewrite the following sentences according to instructions given after each. Make other changes that may be necessary, but do not change the meaning of each sentence.

(i) This horse is better trained than yours. (Begin:Your........)

Answers: Your horse is not well trained as this.

(ii) The children will sit out in the garden, if the weather is cool.
(Begin: The children won't................)

Answer The children won't sit out in the garden, if the weather is hot.

(iii) The thief ran so fast that the police could not catch him. (Rewrite using:too.)

Answer: The thief ran too fast to be caught by the police.

(iv) Her attitude often annoys me. (Rewrite using:annoyance)

Answer: Her attitude is often the cause of my annoyance.

(v) The child disappeared as soon as the bus stopped. (Begin:Hardly......)

Answer: Hardly had the bus stopped when the child disappeared.

(vi) There is no success without effort. (Begin:Whenever........)

Answer: Whenever there is effort, there is success.

(vii) "Please teach me to cycle"she asked her brother.(Rewrite in indirect form.........)

Ans: She requested her brother to teach her to cycle.

(viii) The peasants regarded him as a thief and called him a villain.(End:.........the peasants)

Answer: He was regarded as the thief and called a villain by the peasants.

ICSE Solved Question Paper 2010

(a) In the following passage, fill in each of the numbered blanks with the correct form of word given in brackets. Do not copy the passage, but write correct serial order the word or phrase appropriate to blank space.

Example:(0):g(a) In the following passage, fill in each of the numbered blanks with the correct form of word given in brackets. Do not copy the passage, but write correct serial order the word or phrase appropriate to blank space.iven

But just when I had almost(0)-------(give) up hope, I was(1)-----(strike) with a brilliant idea; my birthday was due fairly soon, and if I(2)-----(deal) with the family skilfully, I (4)-------(suggest) to the family that, instead of (5)------(let) them choose my presents, I(6)------(may) tell them the things that I(7)-----(want) most. In this way they could be sure of not(8)disappoint me.

Ans: 1.struck; 2. dealt; 3. felt; 4. suggested; 5. letting; 6. might; 7. wanted; 8. disappointing

(b) Fill up the blanks with appropriate words:

(i) I refrained -------- telling Reeta the truth.

Answer: from

(ii) The leader counted -------- the co-operation of his colleagues.

Answer on

(iii) The public was cautioned ------- pickpockets.

Ans: against

(iv) Janaki escorted her daughter to the cinema theater as she was anxious ------ her safety.

Answer: for

(v) Their path was best ------- difficulties yet they succeed.

Answer with

(vi) The mouse crept stealthily -------- the cheese.

Answer: towards

(vii) It was good -------- you to invite Sheila for the picnic.

Answer: of

(viii) Smoking ------- public places is now banned.

Answer: in

(c) Join the following sentences to make one complete sentence without using and, but or so;

(i) You will surely be late. Hurry up!

Answer: Unless you hurry up, you will surely be late.

(ii) The trekker got lost due to the heavy fog. They misplaced their map as well.

Answer: Besides getting lost due to the heavy fog, the trekkers had also misplaced their map.

(iii) She has to apologize. He will not meet her again if she does not do so.

Answer: He will not meet again unless she apologize her.

(iv) I ware this expensive outfit very sparingly, I bought last month.

Ans: The expensive outfit that I bought last month is worn very sparingly by me.

(d) Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given after each. Make other changes that may be necessary, but do not change the meaning of each sentence.

(i) Unless Rita take care of her health, she will not be able to look after her family. (Begin:Rita must.....)

Ans: Rita must take care of her health or she will not be able to look after her family.

(ii) His arrogance was the cause of his losing the election. (Rewrite the sentence using "arrogant")

Ans: He lost the election because he was arrogant.

(iii) If you are not a member you can not borrow books.(Begin:Only......)

Ans: Only if you are a member you can borrow books.

(iv)It is pity our vacation is not longer.(Begin: i wish.......)

I wish our vacations were longer.

(v) Raju did not complete exercise on time.(Rewrite the sentence adding a question tag.)

Ans: Raju did not complete exercise on time, did he?

(vi) Rohan was so terrified of being left alone in the house that he started screaming.(Begin:So.....)

Ans: So terrified was Rohan of being left alone in the house that he started screaming.

(vii) The teacher asked, "How many of you think the answer is correct?"

Ans: The teacher asked how many of them thought the answer was correct.

(viii) Sunil is the fastest runner in the school.(End........as Sunil)

Ans: No other runner in the school is so fast as Sunil.

ICSE Solved Question Paper 2009

(a) (a) In the following passage, fill in each of the numbered blanks with the correct form of word given in brackets. Do not copy the passage, but write correct serial order the word or phrase appropriate to blank space.

Example: (0)spoke

As she(0)------- (speak) (1)--------(rise) and (2)-----(go) to the center blackboard, I(3)--------- (find) the chalk(4)--------(write) in block letters the tittle of the book. Then I (5)-----(put) the chalk down and went to(6)----- (sit), beside her, to (7)------(hold) her hand. The day had barely(8)-------(begin).

Ans: 1. rose; 2. went; 3. found; 4. wrote; 5. put; 6. sit; 7. hold; 8. begun

(b) Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

(i) I prevailed -------- him to join gymnasium.

Ans: upon

(ii) The curious child eagerly begged ------ an answer to the riddle.

Ans: for

(iii) He was bent -------- coming first in the examination.

Ans: on

(iv) The theory exam was followed ------- a group discussion.

Ans: by

(v) I ran ----- my teacher at the show last night.

Ans: into

(vi) She is extremely anxious ------- an interview next week.

Ans. about

(vii) What a contrast ------ the two siblings!

Ans: between

(viii) The brothers fought ------ their fathers property.

Ans; over

(c) Join the following sentences to make one complete sentence without using and, but or so.

(i) swarna asked me a question. I was unable to answer.

Ans: I was unable to answer the question that Swarna asked me.

(ii) You helped Tania. She will always will be grateful.

Ans: Tania will always will be grateful for your help.

(iii) I heard you won a prize. I am extremely delighted.

Ans: I am extremely delighted to hear that you won a prize.

(iv) There was heavy traffic. We reached the stadium on time.

Ans: Though there was heavy traffic, we reached the stadium on time.

(d) Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given after each. Make other changes that may be necessary, but do not change the meaning of each sentence.

(i) Study hard now or you will regret it.(Begin: Unless.....)

Ans: Unless you study hard, you regret it.

(ii) The boy asked, 'Why are you lying on the road in this manner?'.(Begin: The boy asked why he.......)

Ans: The boy asked why he was lying on the road that manner.

(iii) Megha is too tall to crawl under the table.(Begin: Megha is so.......)

Ans: Megha is so tall that she cannot crawl under the table.

(iv) He arrived in school on time even though he stopped for a bite on the way.(Use 'in spite of' instead of even though)

Ans: In spite of stopping for a bite on the way, he arrived in school on time.

(v) She open the kitchen door and Cockroach ran out. (End with 'Cockroach')

Ans: She open the kitchen door and out ran a Cockroach.

(vi) Arjun was better speaker than his brother.(Begin: His brother......)

Ans: His brother was not as good speaker as Arjun.

(vii) Asha missed examination because of her illness.(Begin: Her illness.....)

Ans: Her illness caused Asha to miss her examination.

(viii) As soon as the curtain came down the applause rang out.(Begin: No sooner......)


Ans: No sooner did the curtain come down, the applause rang out.

University of Rajasthan: ELECTROMAGNETIC INTERFERENCE & COMPATIBILITY B.E 2007 Question Paper

We are here updating old question papers of various universities in India. In earlier post, we have updated with B.E EICE Advanced Microprocessor 2007 Question Paper. In this post, you can find one of the question paper of Rajathan University, ELECTROMAGNETIC INTERFERENCE & COMPATIBILITY. This question paper was asked in the year 2007 for B.E 7th Semester Main and Back Exam. This is Paper VI in the new 4 year semester scheme.

FOURTH B.E.(VII SEMESTER)(MAIN/BACK) EXAMINATION,2007

(New Four Year Semester Scheme)

(Exam. of 2007 held in Jan. 2008)

[Branch: Electronic Instrumentation & Control Engineering]

Paper VI

ELECTROMAGNETIC INTERFERENCE & COMPATIBILITY

Time Allowed: Three Hours

Maximum Marks-80

Attempt any FIVE questions.
All questions carry equal marks.

1.(a) What is EMI? Explain the EMI problem with example. [Marks:8]

(b) What are the basic differences between conducted and radiated emission? [Marks:8]

2. Describe the EMI control techniques. [Marks:16]

3. Explain the test instrumentation for emission and susceptibility testing. [Marks:16]


4.(a) Describe the EMI analysis. [Marks:8]

(b) Explain the voltage probes and current probes. [Marks:8]


5. Explain the spectrum analyzer, LISN and Antennas TEM cell. [Marks:5+5+6]


6. Explain the case studies of some EMI Problems in PCBs and high frequency ICs. [Marks:16]

7. Write short notes on any two:-

(a) Electrostatic Discharge

(b) Errors in EMI testing

(c) EMC standards and specifications. [Marks:8*2] 

University of Rajasthan: B.E EICE Advanced Microprocessor 2007 Question Paper

Looking for University of Rajasthan B.E EICE old question papers ? You can here download 2007 exam paper for ADVANCED MICROPROCESSOR in fourth B.E seventh semester. This question paper is for the course B.E Electronic Instrumentation & Control Engineering under New four year semester scheme.

FOURTH B.E.(VII SEMESTER)(MAIN/BACK) EXAMINATION,2007
(New Four Year Semester Scheme)
(Exam. of 2007 held in Jan. 2008)
[Branch: Electronic Instrumentation & Control Engineering]
Paper V
ADVANCED MICROPROCESSOR
Time Allowed: Three Hours
Maximum Marks-80

Attempt any FIVE questions.
All questions carry equal marks.

1.(a) Explain the operation of the following pins of 8086 microprocessor:-

(i) INTR

(ii) M/IO'

(iii) Status lines (S2',S1',S0')

(iv) BHE'/S7 [Marks:4*2]

(b) Explain the physical memory organization in an 8086 system. [Marks:8]

2.(a) Explain the following addressing modes with suitable examples:-

(i) Indexed

(ii) Register-relative

(iii) Based indexed

(iv) Relative based indexed. [Marks:4*2]

(b) What is interrupt vector table of 8086? Explain its structure. [Marks:8]

3.(a) Explain the operation of the following instructions along with their correct syntax:-

(i) LEA

(ii) XCHG

(iii) DAS

(iv) MOVSW [Marks:4*2]

(b) Write an 8086 program to find out the largest number from an underscored array of 16-bit numbers stored sequentially in the memory locations starting at offset 0500H in the segment 2000H. Also draw the flowchart for the above program. [Marks:8]

4. It is required to interface two chips of 32K*8 ROM and four chips of 32K*8 RAM with 8086 according to the following map:-

ROM 1 and 2: F0000H-FFFFFH

RAM 1 and 2: D0000H-DFFFFH

RAM 3 and 4: E0000H-EFFFFH

Show the implementation of this memory system. [Marks:16]

5.(a) Draw and explain the block diagram of ADC 0808/0809. [Marks:8]

(b) Explain the following registers of 80386:-

(i) Segment descriptor register

(ii) Control register

(iii) System address register

(iv) Debug and test register [Marks:4*2]

6.(a) Explain the protected mode of 80386 without paging unit. [Marks:8]

(b) Explain the process of converting a linear address to a physical address for 80386. [Marks:8]

7. (a) Explain the register organization of 80486 with the help of a diagram. [Marks:8]

(b) Draw and explain Pentium CPU Architecture. [Marks:8]

8. Write short note on any two of the following:-

(a) Min/Max mode of 8086

(b) Keyboard and display interface

(c) Rs. 232 communication standard. [Marks:2*8]

Rajasthan University: B.E Computer Engineering, 7th Semester, INTERNET TECHNOLOGIES 2007 Question Paper

Want to have downloaded University of Rajasthan Old Question Papers for B.E Computer Engineering? You can here collect 2007 question paper for a paper, INTERNET TECHNOLOGIES. It is Paper VII in the Fourth Year 7th Semester B.E Exam conducted by the university.

FOURTH B.E.(VII SEMESTER) (MAIN/BACK) EXAMINATION 2007
(New Four Year Semester Scheme)
(Exam. of 2007 held in Jan. 2008)
[Branch: Computer Engineering]
Paper VII
INTERNET TECHNOLOGIES
Time Allowed: Three Hours
Maximum Marks-80
Attempt any FIVE questions.
All questions carry equal marks.

1. Explain all steps for accessing Internet by 'leased line connection' on a given operating system? How it differs from dial-up Internet connection. [Marks: 10+6]

2. Suppose you have to convert the existing LAN (Local Area Network) system of your college intranet system. Explain all steps required to establish this new Intranet system? Also give advantages of Intranet Over LAN System. [Marks: 10+6]

3.(a) Explain various protocols used for sending and receiving messaging by an E-mail program.

(b) What is the role of various E-mail Headers in E-mail? [Marks: 8+8]

4.(a)What do you understand by 'Digital Telephony'? How it can be implemented as an ISDN application?

(b) What is 'Multi-point Conferencing'? Explain H.323 Protocols used for it? [Marks: 8+8]

5.(a) You have to develop your college website as your degree project, Explain various steps that you will follow?

(b) What is web traffic and Log Files? How Log File is useful in analyzing web traffic? [Marks: 8+8]

6. What is Domain Name System? How it is Useful for Internet. Also Explain Static Host Configuration and Dynamic Host Configuration. Which one is better and why? [Marks: 4*4]

7. What is Network Operating System? Explain Network Card, Cabling, Hub and Routers? [Marks: 6+10]

8. Write short notes on any four:-

(a) ADSL(Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line)

(b) Filtering of E-mail

(c) Video and Voice Conferencing

(d) Search Engine

(e) Clients and Servers[Marks: 8*2] 

University of Rajasthan: MULTIMEDIA SYSTEMS B.E Computer Engineering, 2007 Question Paper

The following question paper refers to an old question paper of University of Rajasthan It is titled as "MULTIMEDIA SYSTEMS" for B.E 8th Semester Main and Back Examinations. This question paper was asked in the 2007 Rajasthan University Examination. Download it now from the following passages.

University: Rajasthan University / University of Rajasthan
Course: B.E Computer Engineering
Paper: MULTIMEDIA SYSTEMS
Paper Code: NA
Year of Examination: 2007
Semester: VII

University of Rajasthan

FOURTH B.E. (VII SEMESTER) (MAIN/BACK) EXAMINATION, 2007

(New Four Year Semester Scheme)

(Exam. of 2007 held in Jan. 2008)

[Branch: Computer Engineering]

(common with E.C.)

Paper VII

MULTIMEDIA SYSTEMS

Time Allowed: Three Hours

Maximum Marks-80

Attempt any FIVE questions.
All questions carry equal marks.


1.(a) What are the main properties of Multimedia System? Explain in detail. [Marks:8]

(b) What is Multimedia System? Define different type of media. [Marks:8]


2.(a) Define all the steps of Image Recognition process. [Marks:8]

(b) What is Dithering? Why is it important? [Marks:8]


3.(a) Define MPEG. Explain video encoding in MPEG. [Marks:6]

(b) What are the MIDI interface components? [Marks:4]

(c) What are basic sound concepts? [Marks:6]


4.(a) Define Frame, Track, Area and blocks of a CD-DA. What are the advantages of CD-DA? [Marks:8]

(b) Define different modes of CD-ROM in detail. [Marks:8]


5.(a) How do image processing and image recognition help in multimedia application? [Marks:8]

(b) How does image preparation take place in H.261? Explain various methods of coding used by H.261 standard. [Marks:8]


6.(a) What is Real Time Operating System? Explain its various features. [Marks:6]

(b) Define Process Management for Real Time System. [Marks:5]

(c) Describe different types of Disk Scheduling. [Marks:5]


7.(a) How are monotonic algorithms used to control the various managements of the Operating System? [Marks:8]

(b) Distinguish between Synchronous. Asynchronous and Isochronous modes data-stream transfer. [Marks:8]

8. Write short note on any two of the following:-

(a) Huffman Encoding

(b) Multimedia File System

(c) Lip Synchronization

(d) Hypertext, Hypermedia and Multimedia [Marks:8x2]

Azar Mohammed Appointed as Pakistan New Coach

Do you know Azar Mohammed? He is former cricketer for Pakistan Team. Now he has been given the duty of taking Pakistan team as a cricket coach. He will act as Bowling coach for Pakistan Team for ongoing Asia Cup as well as T20 World Cup being held in India.

Talking about Azar, he has played 143 ODI for Pakistan and made a record of 1521 runs and 123 wickets. In test cricket, he has played 21 Tests in which he scored 900 runs and bagged 39 wickets. He was one of the all-rounder during his cricket career as a player.

As current coach Mushtaq is feeling too fatigue, the 40 years old Azar is likely to replace Mushtaq for two consecutive events, that is Asia Cup and T20 World cup. Mushtaq will rejoin the Pakistan Team on June for England Tour of Pakistan.

"Azhar is a good replacement for the interim, being a T20 specialist. He will join the squad later this evening" Says the team Manager of the Pakistan Cricket.

TNPSC VAO Exam 28-02-2016 Question Paper with Answer Key

Update as on 03rd March 2016: Official Answer Key has been released. Check it at Official website www.tnpsc.gov.in

Update as on 28th Feb 2016: TNPSC has successfully conduced VAO exam 2016 as expected. Now every body is started searching for TNPSC VAO 2016 answer key. But officially, the answer key will not be released today. However, candidates are not stopping searching for VAO 2016 answer keys in internet. No where the answer key will not be available and most of the websites are just updating fake information about answer key of TNPSC VAO exam. So don't waste your time in searching answer key now. Keep visiting a day later. We will here inform and upload answer key after TNPSC VAO exam 2016 answer key has been published.

Click here for tentative answer keys from private coaching centre

Are you going to write TNPSC VAO exam 2016? This is the post where you can get all details about TNPSC VAO exam question paper, answer key, exam review, solution, etc. TNPSC is conducting VAO exam on coming 28th Feb 2016. Huge number of candidates have applied online and waiting for the exam coming up. Just one day more to get their exam. Yes, tomorrow will be the big day for all VAO aspirants as they have their chance of better future. This VAO exam is very competitive every year among the people. It's their dream job. So well prepared and intelligent aspirants are going to get their new Govt job after writing their VAO exam tomorrow (28th Feb 2016). If you are the one who have applied, don't worry, be confident and write your exam better to come on merit.

TNPSC VAO Exam 28th February 2016 Question Paper with Answer key Download

The question paper contains two types. One is General Knowledge with General Tamil and another one is General Knowledge with General English. Most of the aspirants should have chosen GK with General Tamil. GK is common for all. Why they are choosing GK with Tamil. The reason is simple as they are in Tamil Nadu and should have better knowledge about Tamil and its grammar than English. Surely, the exam day is a nervous one, why not for VAO aspirants. But making the exam without fear will help in all the way. So if you whether going to write VAO exam first time or not, have a habit of taking easy on the exam day and the hours of exams. 

We are here uploading TNPSC VAO Exam Feb 2016 Question Paper with answer key as soon as exam has been finished successfully. So don't forget to visit our site immediately after coming out of examination hall tomorrow. The PDF file of Question Paper with TNPSC VAO exam 2016 answer key will available here. The answer key provided here will be a tentative one as the official answer key from the TNPSC will not be published immediately. It will take one or more days. So those who are eagerly to know what would be the answer for their questions attended, can make use of this page very effectively. The question papers will be in four series namely, A, B. C, D.

TNPSC VAO Exams 2016 Cut-Off marks and Results

The cut-off marks means the merit marks. TNPSC will decide some cut-off marks (minimum marks) to be eligible in the competition. This cut-off mark will be different for different categories like SC, ST, BC, PH, etc. Normally, SC/ST candidates will have very low cut-off so they can easily get VAO job even if their score is low. The cut-off marks will be decided by TNPSC based on the overall performance of the VAO exam candidates. If there are heavy competition, high cut-off will be fixed. So aspirants are requested to keep visiting this page to know about TNPSC VAO cut-off marks.

Last thing, but most important thing, is the Results of TNPSC VAO Exams 2016. It will take more times as this the pre-stage before calling for certificates verification and appointment. It is expected that the results will be announced in the month of June 2016.

We wish all the VAO aspirants all the very best!

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