Are you going to appear for GATE 2016 examinations for Civil Engineering on 07th Feb 2016? Want to refer some solved question papers that are previously asked ? You can here practice old questions so that you can able to grab the GATE exam little bit easy. Collect all questions that are taken from GATE-2013 and GATE 2012 exam papers. It includes, Civil, Mechanical, Electrical, Electronics and engineering mathematics questions for practice. Answers are provided along the options.
Exam Board: GATE-2016
Subject: Civil Engineering
Type of Study Materials: Previous Years Solved Questions
Date of Exam: 07th Feb 2016
1. Reaction at support b of the structure is
(a) P - Ans
(b) P√ 2
(c) P/√ 2
(d) P/2
2. Rotational stiffness-coefficient, K11 for the frame having two members of equal EI/l is given by :
(a) 5 EI/l
(b) 6 EI/l
(c) 7 EI/l - Ans
(d) 8 EI/l
3. A hydraulic turbine develops a power of 104 metric horse power while running at a speed of 100 revolutions per minute, under a head of 40 m. Its specific speed is nearest to one of the following :
(a) 100 - Ans
(b) 628
(c) 523
(d) 314
4. Horizontal stiffness coefficient, K11 of bar ab is given by :
(a) A EIl √ 2 - Ans
(b) A EI 2 l
(c) A EIl
(d) 2 A EIl
5. Bending moments at joint b and c of the portal frame are respectively :
(a) + p l/2, - p l/2
(b) + p l/2, + p l/2 - Ans
(c) + p l/4, - p l/4
(d) + p l/4, +p l/4
6. If the deformation of the truss-members are as shown in parentheses, the rotation of the member bd is :
(a) 0.5 x 10 -2 radian
(b) 1.0 x 10-2 radian
(c) 1.5 x 10-2 radian
(d) 2.0 x 10-2 radian - Ans
7. If YY is the centroidal axis of a T beam-section subjected to plastic moment, Mp, the neutral axis lies,
(a) above the line ZZ
(b) between the lines YY and ZZ - Ans
(c) between the lines XX and YY
(d) below the lines XX
8. The correct reinforcement -details at the corner of a rectangular water tank, in horizontal plane is shown by :
Ans : (d)
9. If j = nominal diameter of reinforcing bar, fs = compressive stress in the bar and fbd = design bond stress of concrete, the anchorage length, La of straight bar in compression is equal to :
(a) La =Ø Is
fbd
(b) La = Ø fs
2 fbd
(c) La = Ø fs
pie fbd
(d) La = Øfs - Ans
4 fbd
10. Generally the maximum deflection/ span ratio of a steel mmber should not exceed
(a) 1/750
(b) 1/500
(c) 1/325 - Ans
(d) 1/250
11. The effective length of a circular electric pole of length L and constant diam,eters erected on ground is,
(a) 0.80 L
(b) 1.20 L
(c) 1.50L
(d) 2.00 L - Ans
12. In IS:800(1984) the permissible compressive stress in column is based on :
(a) Euler formula
(b) Secant formula - Ans
(c) Rankine -Gordan formula
(d) Rankine -Merchant formula
13. Generally (fatigue life of welded steel structure/fatigue life of riveted steel structure) ratio is,
(a) smaller than 1 - Ans
(b) equal to 1
(c) greater than 1
(d) greater than 2.1
14. The particle size distribution curves are extremely useful for the classification of
(a) fine grained soils
(b) coarse grained soils
(c) both coarse grained and fine grained soils - Ans
(d) silts and clays
15. Which one of the following relations, is not correct ?
(a) e = n
1-n
(b) ysat = G +e y w
1+e
(c) n = e - Ans
1-e
(d) e = W G
S
Where e-void ratio n-porosity, W-water content, S-degree of saturation Ysat saturated unit weight of soil, yw - unit weight of water
16. Seepage force per unit volume (i) can be expressed as
(a) i ywL
(b) iL
(c) ywh
(d) i yw - Ans
Where i-hydraulic gradient, L-Length of soil sample, h-hydraulic head yw-unit weight of water.
17. The Piezometric head at point C, in the experimental set-up shown in figure when the flow takes place under a constant head through the soils A and B is
(a) 0 com
(b) 40 cm
(c) 80 cm
(d) 120 cm - Ans
18. Mechanical stabilization requires :
(a) mixing of two or more types of natural soils - Ans
(b) addition of chemicals to soils
(c) addition of lime to soils
(d) addition of cementing material to soils
19. Piping in soil occurs when
(a) the soil is highly porous
(b) sudden change in permeability occurs
(c) effective pressure becomes zero - Ans
(d) the soil is highly stratified
20. The soils most susceptible to liquefaction are :
(a) saturated dense sands
(b) saturated fine and medium sands of uniform particle size - Ans
(c) saturated clays of uniform size
(d) saturated gravels and cobbles
21. The most commonly used sampler for obtaining a disturbed sample of the soil is
(a) split spoon sampler - Ans
(b) open drive sampler
(c) piston sampler
(d) thin wall shelby tube sampler
22. For the determination earth pressure Coulomb's wedge theory assumed that
(a) the back of wall is smooth and vertical
(b) the soil is non-homogeneous and anisotropic
(c) the slip surface is circular
(d) the wall surface is rough - Ans
23. The wall shown in given below has failed. The cause of failure or the error made in the design of the failded wall is :
(a) deep slip surface failure
(b) overturning - Ans
(c) no proper drainage in the clay backfill
(d) translational failure
24. A foundation is considered as shallow if its depth is :
(a) less than 1 metre
(b) greater than its width
(c) equal to or less than its width - Ans
(d) greater than 1 metre
25. For the strip footing on a saturated clay, for the given failure surface in the given figure , the bearing capacity equation takes the form :
(a) 5.7 Cu
(b) 5.14 Cu - Ans
(c) 4 pie Cu
(d) 2 pie Cu
Where Cu - undrained shear strength
jv - angle of internal friction
B - width of strip footing
qc - ultimate bearing capacity of soil
26. The value of bearing capacity factor for cohesion Nc, for piles as per Meyerhof, is taken as :
(a) 6.2
(b) 12.0
(c) 9.0
(d) 5.14 - Ans
27. Negative skin friction occurs when :
(a) an upward drag exists in the pile
(b) the surrounding soil settles more than the pile
(c) the pile passes continuously through a firm soil
(d) the driving operation begins
28. If, for a fluid in motion, pressure at a point is same in all directions, then the fluid is :
(a) a real fluid
(b) a Newtonian fluid - Ans
(c) an ideal fluid
(d) a non-Newtonian fluid
29. A vertical triangular plane area, submerged in water, with one side in the free surface, vertex downward and altitude 'h' has the pressure centre below the free surface by
(a) h/4
(b) h/3
(c) 2h/3 - Ans
(d) h/3
30. The Prandtl mixing length for turbulent flow through pipes is
(a) independent of shear stress - Ans
(b) a universal constant
(c) zero at the pipe wall
(d) independent of radial distance from pipe axis
31. In network of pipes
(a) the algebraic sum of discharges around each circuit is zero
(b) the algebraic sum of (pressure + datum) head drops around each circuit is zero - Ans
(c) the elevation of hydraulic grade line is assumed for each junction point
(d) elementary circuits are replaced by equivalent pipes
32. Flow at critical depth takes place in an open channel when
(a) for a given specific energy, discharge is maximum
(b) for a given discharge, specific energy is maximum - Ans
(c) discharge is minimum for a given specific energy
(d) discharge is maximum for a given specific force
33. On an immersed body in a flowing fluid the lift force is :
(a) due to buoyant force
(b) always in the opposite direction to gravity - Ans
(c) due to Wake phenomenon
(d) the dynamic fluid -force component normal to approach velocity
34. The repeating variables in dimensional analysis should :
(a) include the dependent variable - Ans
(b) have amongst themselves all the basic dimensions
(c) be derivable from one another
(d) exclude one of the basic dimensions
35. At a rated capacity of 44 Cumecs, a centrifugal pump develops 36 m of head when operating at 1450 rpm. Its specific speed is :
(a) 654 - Ans
(b) 509
(c) 700
(d) 90
36. X-xomponent of velocity in a 2-D incompressible flow is given by u=y2+4 xy. If Y-component of velocity 'v' equals zero at y = 0, the expression for 'v' is given by
(a) 4y
(b) 2y2
(c) -2y2 - Ans
(d) 2xy
37. Water table drops by 3m in an irrigable land of 50 hectar. If porosity and specific retention are 0.30 and 0.10 respectively, the change in storage in hectare-meter is :
(a) 15
(b) 30 - Ans
(c) 45
(d) 60
38. The most important water quality parameter for domestic use of water is
(a) carbonate hardness
(b) non - carbonate hardness - Ans
(c) coliform group of organisms
(d) Chlorides
39. Presence of fluoride in water greater than permissible level of 1.5 mg/l causes
(a) cardiovascular disease
(b) methemoglobinemia
(c) hepatitis
(d) dental fluorosis - Ans
40. Chemical oxygen Demand (COD) of a sample is always greater than Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) since it represents :
(a) biodegradable organic matter only
(b) biodegradable and non-degradable organic matter - Ans
(c) non-biodegradable organic matter
(d) inorganic matter
41. A waste water sample diluted to 100 times with aeration water had an initial dissolved oxygen (DO) of 7.0 mg/l and after 5 days of incubation at 20o C, the DO was zero. The BOD of waste water is :
(a) 700 mg/l - Ans
(b) 100 mg/l
(c) cannot be determined
(d) 7 mg/l
42. The treatment that should be given to the water from a deep tube well is :
(a) pre-settling only
(b) coagulation and flocculation only
(c) filtration only
(d) disinfection only - Ans
43. The drop manholes are provided in a sewerage system when there is
(a) change in alignment of sewer line
(b) change in size of sewers
(c) change in the elevation of ground level - Ans
(d) change from gravity system to pressure system
44. The removal of dissolved organic matter occurs in
(a) Slow sand filters
(b) trickling filters- Ans
(c) rapid sand filters
(d) dual media filters
45. The main constituents of gas generated during the anaerobic digestion of sewage sludge are :
(a) carbon dioxide and methane- Ans
(b) methane and ethane
(c) carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide
(d) carbon monoxide and nitrogen
46. A single rapid test to determine the pollutional status of river water is :
(a) biochemical oxygen demand
(b) chemical oxygen demant
(c) total organic solids - Ans
(d) dissolved oxygen
47. Presence of excess nitrates in river water indicates :
(a) recent pollution of water with sewage
(b) past pollution of water with sewage- Ans
(c) immediate pollution of water with sewage
(d) no pollution of water with sewage
48. One of the probable causes of rutting on flexible pavements is
(a) excessive stripping of binder material from the wearing course
(b) use of flaky aggregates in the wearing course
(c) inadequate compaction of pavement layers - Ans
(d) high wind speeds
49. An important purpose of prime coats is to :
(a) promote the bond between the base and the wearing courses
(b) promote the adhesion between an existing wearing surface and a subsequent wearing surface - Ans
(c) promote the bond between the sub-base cause and the sub-grade
(d) increase the stability of the sub-grade
50. Flexible pavements derive stability primarily from :
(a) aggregate interlock, particle friction and cohesion - Ans
(b) cohesion alone
(c) the binding power of bituminous materials
(d) the flexural strength of the surface course
Exam Board: GATE-2016
Subject: Civil Engineering
Type of Study Materials: Previous Years Solved Questions
Date of Exam: 07th Feb 2016
1. Reaction at support b of the structure is
(a) P - Ans
(b) P√ 2
(c) P/√ 2
(d) P/2
2. Rotational stiffness-coefficient, K11 for the frame having two members of equal EI/l is given by :
(a) 5 EI/l
(b) 6 EI/l
(c) 7 EI/l - Ans
(d) 8 EI/l
3. A hydraulic turbine develops a power of 104 metric horse power while running at a speed of 100 revolutions per minute, under a head of 40 m. Its specific speed is nearest to one of the following :
(a) 100 - Ans
(b) 628
(c) 523
(d) 314
4. Horizontal stiffness coefficient, K11 of bar ab is given by :
(a) A EIl √ 2 - Ans
(b) A EI 2 l
(c) A EIl
(d) 2 A EIl
5. Bending moments at joint b and c of the portal frame are respectively :
(a) + p l/2, - p l/2
(b) + p l/2, + p l/2 - Ans
(c) + p l/4, - p l/4
(d) + p l/4, +p l/4
6. If the deformation of the truss-members are as shown in parentheses, the rotation of the member bd is :
(a) 0.5 x 10 -2 radian
(b) 1.0 x 10-2 radian
(c) 1.5 x 10-2 radian
(d) 2.0 x 10-2 radian - Ans
7. If YY is the centroidal axis of a T beam-section subjected to plastic moment, Mp, the neutral axis lies,
(a) above the line ZZ
(b) between the lines YY and ZZ - Ans
(c) between the lines XX and YY
(d) below the lines XX
8. The correct reinforcement -details at the corner of a rectangular water tank, in horizontal plane is shown by :
Ans : (d)
9. If j = nominal diameter of reinforcing bar, fs = compressive stress in the bar and fbd = design bond stress of concrete, the anchorage length, La of straight bar in compression is equal to :
(a) La =Ø Is
fbd
(b) La = Ø fs
2 fbd
(c) La = Ø fs
pie fbd
(d) La = Øfs - Ans
4 fbd
10. Generally the maximum deflection/ span ratio of a steel mmber should not exceed
(a) 1/750
(b) 1/500
(c) 1/325 - Ans
(d) 1/250
11. The effective length of a circular electric pole of length L and constant diam,eters erected on ground is,
(a) 0.80 L
(b) 1.20 L
(c) 1.50L
(d) 2.00 L - Ans
12. In IS:800(1984) the permissible compressive stress in column is based on :
(a) Euler formula
(b) Secant formula - Ans
(c) Rankine -Gordan formula
(d) Rankine -Merchant formula
13. Generally (fatigue life of welded steel structure/fatigue life of riveted steel structure) ratio is,
(a) smaller than 1 - Ans
(b) equal to 1
(c) greater than 1
(d) greater than 2.1
14. The particle size distribution curves are extremely useful for the classification of
(a) fine grained soils
(b) coarse grained soils
(c) both coarse grained and fine grained soils - Ans
(d) silts and clays
15. Which one of the following relations, is not correct ?
(a) e = n
1-n
(b) ysat = G +e y w
1+e
(c) n = e - Ans
1-e
(d) e = W G
S
Where e-void ratio n-porosity, W-water content, S-degree of saturation Ysat saturated unit weight of soil, yw - unit weight of water
16. Seepage force per unit volume (i) can be expressed as
(a) i ywL
(b) iL
(c) ywh
(d) i yw - Ans
Where i-hydraulic gradient, L-Length of soil sample, h-hydraulic head yw-unit weight of water.
17. The Piezometric head at point C, in the experimental set-up shown in figure when the flow takes place under a constant head through the soils A and B is
(a) 0 com
(b) 40 cm
(c) 80 cm
(d) 120 cm - Ans
18. Mechanical stabilization requires :
(a) mixing of two or more types of natural soils - Ans
(b) addition of chemicals to soils
(c) addition of lime to soils
(d) addition of cementing material to soils
19. Piping in soil occurs when
(a) the soil is highly porous
(b) sudden change in permeability occurs
(c) effective pressure becomes zero - Ans
(d) the soil is highly stratified
20. The soils most susceptible to liquefaction are :
(a) saturated dense sands
(b) saturated fine and medium sands of uniform particle size - Ans
(c) saturated clays of uniform size
(d) saturated gravels and cobbles
21. The most commonly used sampler for obtaining a disturbed sample of the soil is
(a) split spoon sampler - Ans
(b) open drive sampler
(c) piston sampler
(d) thin wall shelby tube sampler
22. For the determination earth pressure Coulomb's wedge theory assumed that
(a) the back of wall is smooth and vertical
(b) the soil is non-homogeneous and anisotropic
(c) the slip surface is circular
(d) the wall surface is rough - Ans
23. The wall shown in given below has failed. The cause of failure or the error made in the design of the failded wall is :
(a) deep slip surface failure
(b) overturning - Ans
(c) no proper drainage in the clay backfill
(d) translational failure
24. A foundation is considered as shallow if its depth is :
(a) less than 1 metre
(b) greater than its width
(c) equal to or less than its width - Ans
(d) greater than 1 metre
25. For the strip footing on a saturated clay, for the given failure surface in the given figure , the bearing capacity equation takes the form :
(a) 5.7 Cu
(b) 5.14 Cu - Ans
(c) 4 pie Cu
(d) 2 pie Cu
Where Cu - undrained shear strength
jv - angle of internal friction
B - width of strip footing
qc - ultimate bearing capacity of soil
26. The value of bearing capacity factor for cohesion Nc, for piles as per Meyerhof, is taken as :
(a) 6.2
(b) 12.0
(c) 9.0
(d) 5.14 - Ans
27. Negative skin friction occurs when :
(a) an upward drag exists in the pile
(b) the surrounding soil settles more than the pile
(c) the pile passes continuously through a firm soil
(d) the driving operation begins
28. If, for a fluid in motion, pressure at a point is same in all directions, then the fluid is :
(a) a real fluid
(b) a Newtonian fluid - Ans
(c) an ideal fluid
(d) a non-Newtonian fluid
29. A vertical triangular plane area, submerged in water, with one side in the free surface, vertex downward and altitude 'h' has the pressure centre below the free surface by
(a) h/4
(b) h/3
(c) 2h/3 - Ans
(d) h/3
30. The Prandtl mixing length for turbulent flow through pipes is
(a) independent of shear stress - Ans
(b) a universal constant
(c) zero at the pipe wall
(d) independent of radial distance from pipe axis
31. In network of pipes
(a) the algebraic sum of discharges around each circuit is zero
(b) the algebraic sum of (pressure + datum) head drops around each circuit is zero - Ans
(c) the elevation of hydraulic grade line is assumed for each junction point
(d) elementary circuits are replaced by equivalent pipes
32. Flow at critical depth takes place in an open channel when
(a) for a given specific energy, discharge is maximum
(b) for a given discharge, specific energy is maximum - Ans
(c) discharge is minimum for a given specific energy
(d) discharge is maximum for a given specific force
33. On an immersed body in a flowing fluid the lift force is :
(a) due to buoyant force
(b) always in the opposite direction to gravity - Ans
(c) due to Wake phenomenon
(d) the dynamic fluid -force component normal to approach velocity
34. The repeating variables in dimensional analysis should :
(a) include the dependent variable - Ans
(b) have amongst themselves all the basic dimensions
(c) be derivable from one another
(d) exclude one of the basic dimensions
35. At a rated capacity of 44 Cumecs, a centrifugal pump develops 36 m of head when operating at 1450 rpm. Its specific speed is :
(a) 654 - Ans
(b) 509
(c) 700
(d) 90
36. X-xomponent of velocity in a 2-D incompressible flow is given by u=y2+4 xy. If Y-component of velocity 'v' equals zero at y = 0, the expression for 'v' is given by
(a) 4y
(b) 2y2
(c) -2y2 - Ans
(d) 2xy
37. Water table drops by 3m in an irrigable land of 50 hectar. If porosity and specific retention are 0.30 and 0.10 respectively, the change in storage in hectare-meter is :
(a) 15
(b) 30 - Ans
(c) 45
(d) 60
38. The most important water quality parameter for domestic use of water is
(a) carbonate hardness
(b) non - carbonate hardness - Ans
(c) coliform group of organisms
(d) Chlorides
39. Presence of fluoride in water greater than permissible level of 1.5 mg/l causes
(a) cardiovascular disease
(b) methemoglobinemia
(c) hepatitis
(d) dental fluorosis - Ans
40. Chemical oxygen Demand (COD) of a sample is always greater than Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) since it represents :
(a) biodegradable organic matter only
(b) biodegradable and non-degradable organic matter - Ans
(c) non-biodegradable organic matter
(d) inorganic matter
41. A waste water sample diluted to 100 times with aeration water had an initial dissolved oxygen (DO) of 7.0 mg/l and after 5 days of incubation at 20o C, the DO was zero. The BOD of waste water is :
(a) 700 mg/l - Ans
(b) 100 mg/l
(c) cannot be determined
(d) 7 mg/l
42. The treatment that should be given to the water from a deep tube well is :
(a) pre-settling only
(b) coagulation and flocculation only
(c) filtration only
(d) disinfection only - Ans
43. The drop manholes are provided in a sewerage system when there is
(a) change in alignment of sewer line
(b) change in size of sewers
(c) change in the elevation of ground level - Ans
(d) change from gravity system to pressure system
44. The removal of dissolved organic matter occurs in
(a) Slow sand filters
(b) trickling filters- Ans
(c) rapid sand filters
(d) dual media filters
45. The main constituents of gas generated during the anaerobic digestion of sewage sludge are :
(a) carbon dioxide and methane- Ans
(b) methane and ethane
(c) carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide
(d) carbon monoxide and nitrogen
46. A single rapid test to determine the pollutional status of river water is :
(a) biochemical oxygen demand
(b) chemical oxygen demant
(c) total organic solids - Ans
(d) dissolved oxygen
47. Presence of excess nitrates in river water indicates :
(a) recent pollution of water with sewage
(b) past pollution of water with sewage- Ans
(c) immediate pollution of water with sewage
(d) no pollution of water with sewage
48. One of the probable causes of rutting on flexible pavements is
(a) excessive stripping of binder material from the wearing course
(b) use of flaky aggregates in the wearing course
(c) inadequate compaction of pavement layers - Ans
(d) high wind speeds
49. An important purpose of prime coats is to :
(a) promote the bond between the base and the wearing courses
(b) promote the adhesion between an existing wearing surface and a subsequent wearing surface - Ans
(c) promote the bond between the sub-base cause and the sub-grade
(d) increase the stability of the sub-grade
50. Flexible pavements derive stability primarily from :
(a) aggregate interlock, particle friction and cohesion - Ans
(b) cohesion alone
(c) the binding power of bituminous materials
(d) the flexural strength of the surface course
%20DISTRIBUTED%20SYSTEMS_page-0001.jpg "Anna University CS 8603 – Distributed Systems For Computer Science and Engineering April/May 2021")
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