Punjab University
OCET-2012 Entrance Question Paper
Question Booklet Series : A Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
Answer Sheet Serial No.
Signature of the Candidate :
Subject : M. Tech. (Instrumentation)
Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel Pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.
M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346 2
M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346 3 [Turn over
M.Tech. (Instrumentation)/A
1. Electrolyte solution in a standard saturated Weston cell is :
(A) Cadmium sulphate (B) Potassium sulphate
(C) Magnesium sulphate (D) Zinc sulphate
2. The best material use for standard resistor is :
(A) Manganin (B) Aluminium
(C) Nicrome (D) Platinum
3. Which of the following material is best suited for resistance of high value ?
(A) Manganin (B) Nickel-chromium
(C) Constantan (D) Gold chromium
4. Commonly used standard capacitor is :
(A) Concentric sphere type (B) Parallel plate type
(C) Concentric cylinder type with guard rings (D) Multiple parallel plate type
5. The fact as to how closely the instrument reading follows the measured variables is
called the :
(A) Accuracy (B) Precision
(C) Fidelity (D) Sensitivity
6. The reliability of an instrument refers to :
(A) Measurement of changes due to temperature variation
(B) Degree to which repeatability continues to remain within specified limits
(C) The life of the instrument
(D) The extent to which the characteristics remain linear
7. The efficiency of an instrument is defined as the ratio of the measured quantity at full
scale to the power taken by the instrument at :
(A) One-fourth scale (B) Half scale
(C) Three-fourth scale (D) Full scale
8. The degree of reproducibility among several independent measurements of the same
true value under reference conditions is known as :
(A) Accuracy (B) Precision
(C) Linearity (D) Calibration
9. The errors committed by a person in the measurements are :
(A) Gross errors (B) Random errors
(C) Instrumental errors (D) Environmental errors
M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346 4
10. Which of the following is absolute instrument ?
(A) Power factor meter (B) Ammeter
(C) Wattmeter (D) Tangent galvanometer
11. Which of the following type of the instrument is an integrating instrument ?
(A) Power factor meter (B) Energy meter
(C) Watt meter (D) Frequency meter
12. When a PMMC instrument is connected to ac ?
(A) The instrument will get damaged (B) The pointer will not move at all
(C) The pointer will oscillate to and fro (D) The instrument will indicate zero
13. In PMMC instrument scale is :
(A) Non-linear (B) Logarithmic
(C) Exponential (D) Uniformaly divided
14. Moving iron and PMMC instruments can be distinguished from each other by looking at
the :
(A) Pointer (B) Terminal size
(C) Scale (D) Scale range
15. Clamp on ammeter is used for measurement of :
(A) Large a. c. (B) Small a. c.
(C) Small d. c. (D) Large d. c.
16. To which of the following you will prefer to extend the range of an a. c. voltmeter ?
(A) Low series resistance (B) High resistance in parallel
(C) CT (D) PT
17. High a. c. voltages are usually measured with :
(A) Magnetic voltmeter (B) Inductive voltmeter
(C) PT with voltmeter (D) CT with voltmeter
18. Integrating meters are used for measurement of :
(A) Voltage (B) Current
(C) Phase (D) Energy
19. Electrolytic meter is basically a/an :
(A) dc ampere-hour meter (B) dc watt-hour meter
(C) ac energy meter (D) ac ampere-hour meter
M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346 5 [Turn over
20. Kelvin double bridge is best suited for measurement of :
(A) Inductance (B) Capacitance
(C) Low resistance (D) High resistance
21. Shunts are employed in series ohmmeters for :
(A) Increasing accuracy (B) Measuring currents
(C) Spreading out the range (D) Protection of meter from burning
22. Loss of charge method is used for the measurement of :
(A) Low R (B) Hi R
(C) Low L (D) Hi L
23. Which of the following is used to measure the resistance of an electrical installation ?
(A) Multimeter (B) Ammeter and Voltmeter
(C) Maxwell bridge (D) Megger
24. Potentiometer is basically a _________________ instrument.
(A) Digital (B) Deflection type
(C) Null type (D) Recording
25. For measurement of emf of a standard cell we use :
(A) Galvanometer (B) Potentiometer
(C) Zener reference (D) Electrodynamic voltmeter
26. Stator of the phase shifting transformer for use in conjunction with an a. c. potentiometer
usually has a ___________ winding.
(A) 1- (B) 2-
(C) 3- (D) 6-
27. The Schering bridge is used for measuring :
(A) Dielectric loss and pf (B) Capacitance and frequency
(C) Inductance and capacitance (D) Resistance and inductance
28. In wein bridge the output frequency is determined by :
(A) RC combination (B) RL combination
(C) RLC combination (D) LC combination
29. Inductance of an inductor is measured in terms of capacitance and resistance by :
(A) Maxwell’s bridge (B) Anderson’s bridge
(C) Hay’s bridge (D) Wein’s bridge
M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346 6
30. Which of the following bridge is frequency sensitive ?
(A) Wheatstone bridge (B) Maxwell bridge
(C) Anderson bridge (D) Wein bridge
31. The __________ earthing device is used to remove all the earth capacitance from the
bridge circuit.
(A) Phase (B) Schering
(C) Wagner (D) Maxwell
32. Open circuit fault in a cable can be located by :
(A) Blavier's test (B) Capacity test
(C) Varley loop test (D) Murray loop test
33. The impurity in liquid having significant effect in reducing the breakdown strength is :
(A) Dust (B) Moisture
(C) Ionic impurity (D) Dissolved gases
34. The main difference between electronic and electrical instrument is that an electronic
instrument has :
(A) An indicating device (B) An electron device
(C) A transducer (D) A digital readout
35. The current sensitivity of an instrument is expressed in :
(A) Ampere (B) Ohm/A
(C) A/division (D) Ohm/V
36. VTVM can measure :
(A) Current and voltage (B) Voltage and resistance
(C) Current and power (D) Current and resistance
37. FETs are used in amplifiers to get :
(A) Hi input impedance (B) Lo input impedance
(C) Hi output impedance (D) Lo output impedance
38. FET input stage is used in an amplifier to increase :
(A) Output impedance (B) Input impedance
(C) Frequency BW (D) Power handling capacity
39. Q-meter operates on the principle of :
(A) Series resonance (B) Current resonance
(C) Self inductance (D) Eddy current
M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346 7 [Turn over
40. In measurement made using a q-meter, hi-impedance elements, should preferably be
connected in :
(A) Star (B) Delta
(C) Series (D) Parallel
41. Input impedance of a CRO is nearly ____________ ohm.
(A) 0 (B) 10 k
(C) 100 (D) 1M
42. Phosphor coating for CRT is provided on :
(A) Inside surface only (B) Outside surface only
(C) Both the surfaces (D) Within the glass
43. Purpose of the synchronizing control in a CRO is :
(A) Focus the spot on the screen (B) Lock the display of the signal
(C) Adjust the amplitude of the display (D) Control the intensity of the spot
44. How many time base circuits does a dual trace CRO has ?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
45. Which one of the following oscillator is used for generation of hi-frequencies ?
(A) RC phase shift (B) Wein bridge
(C) LC oscillator (D) Blocking oscillator
46. Monolithic technique is ideally suited for fabricating :
(A) Linear IC (B) Digital IC
(C) Thin film (D) Thick film
47. An ideal Op-amp does not have :
(A) Zero input impedance (B) Zero output impedance
(C) Infinite voltage gain (D) Infinite Frequency BW
48. An Op-amp may be classified as ________ amplifier.
(A) An RC coupled (B) Linear
(C) Positive feedback (D) Low BW
49. An Op-amp cannot be used as :
(A) An adder (B) An integrator
(C) A multiplier (D) An exponential
M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346 8
50. Binary representation of (85)10 is :
(A) 1010101 (B) 1100101
(C) 1011001 (D) 1001001
51. CMOS uses only :
(A) Bipolar transistors (B) JFET
(C) MOSFET (D) MOSFETs and resistors
52. A _________ crystal is used for accurate and stable time base circuit in a digital frequency
meter.
(A) Quartz (B) Rochelle salt
(C) Aluminium (D) Carbon
53. Which of the following is the output of a thermocouple ?
(A) AC (B) DC
(C) AC voltage (D) DC voltage
54. Maximum rectification efficiency for a half-wave rectifier is :
(A) 100% (B) 88%
(C) 50% (D) 40.6%
55. Crystal structure of silicon is :
(A) Simple cubic (B) Body central cubic
(C) Phase centered cubic (D) Diamond
56. Forbidden energy gap is highest for :
(A) Germanium (B) Silicon
(C) Gallium arsenide (D) Carbon
57. The equivalent circuit of an ideal diode is :
(A) Charging condenser (B) A discharging condenser
(C) A switch (D) A resistor
58. Darlington circuit is obtained by connecting :
(A) Two CB stages in cascade (B) Two CE stages in cascade
(C) A CE stage followed by CB stage (D) Two emitter followers in cascade
59. Maximum efficiency of class-B amplifier is :
(A) 78.5% (B) 66%
(C) 50% (D) 40%
M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346 9 [Turn over
60. A transistor amplifier with 80% efficiency could be :
(A) Class A (B) Class B
(C) Class AB (D) Class C
61. The system steady state error can be minimized by :
(A) Decreasing damping frequency (B) Decreasing natural frequency
(C) Increasing damped frequency (D) Increasing system gain constant
62. Which of the following is not in frequency domain ?
(A) Nyquist criterion (B) Bode plot
(C) Root locus plot (D) Nichol chart
63. Race condition always arises in :
(A) Synchronous circuit (B) Asynchronous circuit
(C) Combination circuit (D) Digital Circuit
64. The 2732 is 4096×8 EPROM. How many address lines does it have ?
(A) 12 (B) 24
(C) 50 (D) 32
65. Scratch pad memory is :
(A) FIFO memory (B) LIFO memory
(C) Local permanent memory (D) Local temporary memory
66. Which of the following bus is used to transfer data from main memory to peripheral device ?
(A) DMA bus (B) Output bus
(C) Input bus (D) Data bus
67. When TRAP interrupt is triggered program control is transferred to location :
(A) 0020h (B) 0024h
(C) 0028h (D) 002Ch
68. The mnemonics used in writing a program is called :
(A) Assembly language (B) Fetch cycle
(C) Micro instruction (D) Object program
69. A program that translates symbolically represented instructions into their binary equivalents is called :
(A) Loader (B) Assembler
(C) Link (D) Auto loader
70. American standard code for information interchange (ASCII) employs a coded character set consisting of :
(A) 7 bit (B) 7 bit with parity check
(C) 8 bit (D) 8 bit with parity check
71. For TV broadcast, picture signal is modulated in :
(A) SSB (B) VSB
(C) FM (D) AM
72. Power rating of radio transmitter is :
(A) 100 mW (B) 10W
(C) 10KW (D) 10mW
73. Which of the following modulating system is digital ?
(A) PPM (B) PWM
(C) PCM (D) PEM
74. An antenna is synonymous to a :
(A) Generator (B) Transformer
(C) Regulator (D) Reflector
75. Which of the following antenna gives circular polarization ?
(A) Yagi-uda (B) Parabolic
(C) Dipole (D) Helical
OCET-2012 Entrance Question Paper
Question Booklet Series : A Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
Answer Sheet Serial No.
Signature of the Candidate :
Subject : M. Tech. (Instrumentation)
Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel Pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.
M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346 2
M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346 3 [Turn over
M.Tech. (Instrumentation)/A
1. Electrolyte solution in a standard saturated Weston cell is :
(A) Cadmium sulphate (B) Potassium sulphate
(C) Magnesium sulphate (D) Zinc sulphate
2. The best material use for standard resistor is :
(A) Manganin (B) Aluminium
(C) Nicrome (D) Platinum
3. Which of the following material is best suited for resistance of high value ?
(A) Manganin (B) Nickel-chromium
(C) Constantan (D) Gold chromium
4. Commonly used standard capacitor is :
(A) Concentric sphere type (B) Parallel plate type
(C) Concentric cylinder type with guard rings (D) Multiple parallel plate type
5. The fact as to how closely the instrument reading follows the measured variables is
called the :
(A) Accuracy (B) Precision
(C) Fidelity (D) Sensitivity
6. The reliability of an instrument refers to :
(A) Measurement of changes due to temperature variation
(B) Degree to which repeatability continues to remain within specified limits
(C) The life of the instrument
(D) The extent to which the characteristics remain linear
7. The efficiency of an instrument is defined as the ratio of the measured quantity at full
scale to the power taken by the instrument at :
(A) One-fourth scale (B) Half scale
(C) Three-fourth scale (D) Full scale
8. The degree of reproducibility among several independent measurements of the same
true value under reference conditions is known as :
(A) Accuracy (B) Precision
(C) Linearity (D) Calibration
9. The errors committed by a person in the measurements are :
(A) Gross errors (B) Random errors
(C) Instrumental errors (D) Environmental errors
M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346 4
10. Which of the following is absolute instrument ?
(A) Power factor meter (B) Ammeter
(C) Wattmeter (D) Tangent galvanometer
11. Which of the following type of the instrument is an integrating instrument ?
(A) Power factor meter (B) Energy meter
(C) Watt meter (D) Frequency meter
12. When a PMMC instrument is connected to ac ?
(A) The instrument will get damaged (B) The pointer will not move at all
(C) The pointer will oscillate to and fro (D) The instrument will indicate zero
13. In PMMC instrument scale is :
(A) Non-linear (B) Logarithmic
(C) Exponential (D) Uniformaly divided
14. Moving iron and PMMC instruments can be distinguished from each other by looking at
the :
(A) Pointer (B) Terminal size
(C) Scale (D) Scale range
15. Clamp on ammeter is used for measurement of :
(A) Large a. c. (B) Small a. c.
(C) Small d. c. (D) Large d. c.
16. To which of the following you will prefer to extend the range of an a. c. voltmeter ?
(A) Low series resistance (B) High resistance in parallel
(C) CT (D) PT
17. High a. c. voltages are usually measured with :
(A) Magnetic voltmeter (B) Inductive voltmeter
(C) PT with voltmeter (D) CT with voltmeter
18. Integrating meters are used for measurement of :
(A) Voltage (B) Current
(C) Phase (D) Energy
19. Electrolytic meter is basically a/an :
(A) dc ampere-hour meter (B) dc watt-hour meter
(C) ac energy meter (D) ac ampere-hour meter
M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346 5 [Turn over
20. Kelvin double bridge is best suited for measurement of :
(A) Inductance (B) Capacitance
(C) Low resistance (D) High resistance
21. Shunts are employed in series ohmmeters for :
(A) Increasing accuracy (B) Measuring currents
(C) Spreading out the range (D) Protection of meter from burning
22. Loss of charge method is used for the measurement of :
(A) Low R (B) Hi R
(C) Low L (D) Hi L
23. Which of the following is used to measure the resistance of an electrical installation ?
(A) Multimeter (B) Ammeter and Voltmeter
(C) Maxwell bridge (D) Megger
24. Potentiometer is basically a _________________ instrument.
(A) Digital (B) Deflection type
(C) Null type (D) Recording
25. For measurement of emf of a standard cell we use :
(A) Galvanometer (B) Potentiometer
(C) Zener reference (D) Electrodynamic voltmeter
26. Stator of the phase shifting transformer for use in conjunction with an a. c. potentiometer
usually has a ___________ winding.
(A) 1- (B) 2-
(C) 3- (D) 6-
27. The Schering bridge is used for measuring :
(A) Dielectric loss and pf (B) Capacitance and frequency
(C) Inductance and capacitance (D) Resistance and inductance
28. In wein bridge the output frequency is determined by :
(A) RC combination (B) RL combination
(C) RLC combination (D) LC combination
29. Inductance of an inductor is measured in terms of capacitance and resistance by :
(A) Maxwell’s bridge (B) Anderson’s bridge
(C) Hay’s bridge (D) Wein’s bridge
M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346 6
30. Which of the following bridge is frequency sensitive ?
(A) Wheatstone bridge (B) Maxwell bridge
(C) Anderson bridge (D) Wein bridge
31. The __________ earthing device is used to remove all the earth capacitance from the
bridge circuit.
(A) Phase (B) Schering
(C) Wagner (D) Maxwell
32. Open circuit fault in a cable can be located by :
(A) Blavier's test (B) Capacity test
(C) Varley loop test (D) Murray loop test
33. The impurity in liquid having significant effect in reducing the breakdown strength is :
(A) Dust (B) Moisture
(C) Ionic impurity (D) Dissolved gases
34. The main difference between electronic and electrical instrument is that an electronic
instrument has :
(A) An indicating device (B) An electron device
(C) A transducer (D) A digital readout
35. The current sensitivity of an instrument is expressed in :
(A) Ampere (B) Ohm/A
(C) A/division (D) Ohm/V
36. VTVM can measure :
(A) Current and voltage (B) Voltage and resistance
(C) Current and power (D) Current and resistance
37. FETs are used in amplifiers to get :
(A) Hi input impedance (B) Lo input impedance
(C) Hi output impedance (D) Lo output impedance
38. FET input stage is used in an amplifier to increase :
(A) Output impedance (B) Input impedance
(C) Frequency BW (D) Power handling capacity
39. Q-meter operates on the principle of :
(A) Series resonance (B) Current resonance
(C) Self inductance (D) Eddy current
M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346 7 [Turn over
40. In measurement made using a q-meter, hi-impedance elements, should preferably be
connected in :
(A) Star (B) Delta
(C) Series (D) Parallel
41. Input impedance of a CRO is nearly ____________ ohm.
(A) 0 (B) 10 k
(C) 100 (D) 1M
42. Phosphor coating for CRT is provided on :
(A) Inside surface only (B) Outside surface only
(C) Both the surfaces (D) Within the glass
43. Purpose of the synchronizing control in a CRO is :
(A) Focus the spot on the screen (B) Lock the display of the signal
(C) Adjust the amplitude of the display (D) Control the intensity of the spot
44. How many time base circuits does a dual trace CRO has ?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
45. Which one of the following oscillator is used for generation of hi-frequencies ?
(A) RC phase shift (B) Wein bridge
(C) LC oscillator (D) Blocking oscillator
46. Monolithic technique is ideally suited for fabricating :
(A) Linear IC (B) Digital IC
(C) Thin film (D) Thick film
47. An ideal Op-amp does not have :
(A) Zero input impedance (B) Zero output impedance
(C) Infinite voltage gain (D) Infinite Frequency BW
48. An Op-amp may be classified as ________ amplifier.
(A) An RC coupled (B) Linear
(C) Positive feedback (D) Low BW
49. An Op-amp cannot be used as :
(A) An adder (B) An integrator
(C) A multiplier (D) An exponential
M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346 8
50. Binary representation of (85)10 is :
(A) 1010101 (B) 1100101
(C) 1011001 (D) 1001001
51. CMOS uses only :
(A) Bipolar transistors (B) JFET
(C) MOSFET (D) MOSFETs and resistors
52. A _________ crystal is used for accurate and stable time base circuit in a digital frequency
meter.
(A) Quartz (B) Rochelle salt
(C) Aluminium (D) Carbon
53. Which of the following is the output of a thermocouple ?
(A) AC (B) DC
(C) AC voltage (D) DC voltage
54. Maximum rectification efficiency for a half-wave rectifier is :
(A) 100% (B) 88%
(C) 50% (D) 40.6%
55. Crystal structure of silicon is :
(A) Simple cubic (B) Body central cubic
(C) Phase centered cubic (D) Diamond
56. Forbidden energy gap is highest for :
(A) Germanium (B) Silicon
(C) Gallium arsenide (D) Carbon
57. The equivalent circuit of an ideal diode is :
(A) Charging condenser (B) A discharging condenser
(C) A switch (D) A resistor
58. Darlington circuit is obtained by connecting :
(A) Two CB stages in cascade (B) Two CE stages in cascade
(C) A CE stage followed by CB stage (D) Two emitter followers in cascade
59. Maximum efficiency of class-B amplifier is :
(A) 78.5% (B) 66%
(C) 50% (D) 40%
M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346 9 [Turn over
60. A transistor amplifier with 80% efficiency could be :
(A) Class A (B) Class B
(C) Class AB (D) Class C
61. The system steady state error can be minimized by :
(A) Decreasing damping frequency (B) Decreasing natural frequency
(C) Increasing damped frequency (D) Increasing system gain constant
62. Which of the following is not in frequency domain ?
(A) Nyquist criterion (B) Bode plot
(C) Root locus plot (D) Nichol chart
63. Race condition always arises in :
(A) Synchronous circuit (B) Asynchronous circuit
(C) Combination circuit (D) Digital Circuit
64. The 2732 is 4096×8 EPROM. How many address lines does it have ?
(A) 12 (B) 24
(C) 50 (D) 32
65. Scratch pad memory is :
(A) FIFO memory (B) LIFO memory
(C) Local permanent memory (D) Local temporary memory
66. Which of the following bus is used to transfer data from main memory to peripheral device ?
(A) DMA bus (B) Output bus
(C) Input bus (D) Data bus
67. When TRAP interrupt is triggered program control is transferred to location :
(A) 0020h (B) 0024h
(C) 0028h (D) 002Ch
68. The mnemonics used in writing a program is called :
(A) Assembly language (B) Fetch cycle
(C) Micro instruction (D) Object program
69. A program that translates symbolically represented instructions into their binary equivalents is called :
(A) Loader (B) Assembler
(C) Link (D) Auto loader
70. American standard code for information interchange (ASCII) employs a coded character set consisting of :
(A) 7 bit (B) 7 bit with parity check
(C) 8 bit (D) 8 bit with parity check
71. For TV broadcast, picture signal is modulated in :
(A) SSB (B) VSB
(C) FM (D) AM
72. Power rating of radio transmitter is :
(A) 100 mW (B) 10W
(C) 10KW (D) 10mW
73. Which of the following modulating system is digital ?
(A) PPM (B) PWM
(C) PCM (D) PEM
74. An antenna is synonymous to a :
(A) Generator (B) Transformer
(C) Regulator (D) Reflector
75. Which of the following antenna gives circular polarization ?
(A) Yagi-uda (B) Parabolic
(C) Dipole (D) Helical
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