OCET-2012 - Punjab University Question Paper M.Sc Bioinformatics
Question Booklet Series : A Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.
Signature of the Candidate :
Subject : M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)
Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.
M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)/A
1. Which parts of amino acids are involved in peptide bonds ?
(A) The carboxyl group on one amino acid and the side chain on the other
(B) The carboxyl group on both amino acids
(C) The amino group on one amino acid and the carboxyl group on the other
(D) The amino group on both amino acids
2. What provides the information necessary to specify the three-dimensional shape of a
protein ?
(A) The protein's peptide bonds
(B) The protein's interactions with other polypeptides
(C) The protein's amino acid sequence
(D) The protein's interaction with molecular chaperones
3. The biological activity of a protein is determined by its :
(A) peptide bonds (B) amino acid sequence
(C) ability to form helices (D) ability to form sheets
4. Those portions of a transmembrane protein that cross the lipid bilayer usually consist of
which structures ?
(A) A sheet with mostly polar side chains
(B) A sheet with mostly nonpolar side chains
(C) An helix with mostly polar side chains
(D) An helix with mostly nonpolar side chains
5. What is the name for a modular unit from which many larger proteins are made ?
(A) Protein domain (B) helix
(C) Globular domain (D) sheet
6. How many identical binding sites exist on an antibody ?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
7. What determines the specificity of an antibody for its antigen ?
(A) The amino acid loops in its variable domain
(B) The amino acid loops in its constant domain
(C) Its Y-shaped structure
(D) The concentration of antibodies and antigens
M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)-A/FRH-41363 4
8. Which set of the following amino acids are all polar ?
(A) W K Q (B) H M N
(C) T N Y (D) M T C
9. Which of the following can best be related to tertiary protein structure ?
(A) helix (B) Greek key
(C) Myoglobin (D) Hemoglobin
10. Edman reagent cleaves polypeptides :
(A) after M residues (B) after positively charged residues
(C) at the C-terminus (D) at the N-terminus
11. What type of glycosidic bond is present in lactose ?
(A) (1→2) (B) (1→2)
(C) (1→4) (D) (1→4)
12. What buffer system is predominantly used in the blood ?
(A) phosphate (B) bicarbonate
(C) citrate (D) tris
13. The purity of an enzyme at various stages of purification is best measured by :
(A) Total protein (B) Total enzyme activity
(C) Specific activity of the enzyme (D) Percent recovery of the enzyme
14. The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation :
(A) allows the graphic determination of the molecular weight of an acid from its pH alone
(B) employs the same value for pKa for all weak acids
(C) is equally useful with solutions of acetic acid and hydrochloric acid
(D) relates the pH of a solution to the pKa and the concentrations of acid and conjugate base
15. The personal-computer industry was started by :
(A) IBM (B) Apple
(C) COMPAQ (D) HCL
16. What is the name given to the molecular-scale computer ?
(A) Femto computer (B) Nano computer
(C) Super computer (D) Micro computer
M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)-A/FRH-41363 5 [Turn over
17. A computer has a 1024 K memory. What does the letter K stand for ?
(A) Kilometre (B) Thousand
(C) 1024 (D) MB
18. Which memory stores the values of variables ?
(A) SAM (B) ROM
(C) RAM (D) PROM
19. Which of the following keyboards is the fastest ?
(A) Dvorak (B) QWERTY
(C) Alphanumeric (D) Numeric
20. A sequence of one or more character is :
(A) Group (B) Block
(C) Field (D) String
21. The operating system manages :
(A) Memory (B) Disks and I/O devices
(C) Processor (D) All of the above
22. Which of the following program is not a utility ?
(A) Debugger (B) Editor
(C) Spooler (D) All of the above
23. Which of the following would be correct units for the rate constant of a reaction that is
second order overall ?
(A) s–1 (B) mol–1 dm3 s–1
(C) mol cm–3 s–1 (D) mol–2 dm6 s–1
24. Predict the geometry of a molecule in which the bonding may be described using the
valence bond model as being made up of sp3 hybrid orbitals on the central atom :
(A) trigonal bipyramedal (B) square planar
(C) tetrahedral (D) octahedral
25. How many normal modes of vibrational are possible for a benzene molecule ?
(A) 6 (B) 30
(C) 12 (D) 31
M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)-A/FRH-41363 6
26. NMR is observed in what region of the electromagnetic spectrum ?
(A) Radiofrequency region (B) Microwave region
(C) IR region (D) Gamma ray region
27. What is the difference between 2-chloropentane and 3-chloropentane ?
(A) the number of carbon atoms in the molecule
(B) the number of chlorine atoms in the molecule
(C) the position of the chlorine atom in the molecule
(D) the geometry of the carbon chain
28. Which bonds are formed by a carbon atom with sp2 hybridization ?
(A) 4bonds (B) 2and 2bonds
(C) 1and 3bonds (D) 4bonds
29. Which technique can be used to determine the number of components in a plant
pigment ?
(A) Calorimetry (B) Chromatography
(C) Colorimetry (D) Gravimetry
30. Which salt is colorless ?
(A) KMnO4 (B) Na2CrO4
(C) CoCl2 (D) BaSO4
31. Which property of electromagnetic radiation is inversely related ?
(A) energy and wavelength (B) amplitude and frequency
(C) energy and frequency (D) wavelength and amplitude
32. Which functional group is not found in proteins ?
(A) alcohol (B) amide
(C) amine (D) aldehyde
33. What happens to the pH of a buffer solution when it is diluted by a factor of 10 ?
(A) the buffer pH decreases by 1 unit
(B) the buffer pH increases by 1 unit
(C) the pH does not change appreciably
(D) the change in pH depends on the buffer used
M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)-A/FRH-41363 7 [Turn over
34. The value of x and y that satisfy the following equations :
y = –3x + 5
y = 2x – 10
(A) x = –3, y = 14 (B) x = 3 y = –4
(C) x = –3 y = –16 (D) x = –5 y = 20
35. Factorise 100 – y2 :
(A) (10 – y) (10 + y) (B) (50 – y) (2 + y)
(C) (10 – y)2 (D) (10 + y) (10 + y)
36. Select the best definition of a Sigmoidal graph :
(A) A graph where two linear regions meet
(B) A graph which has an 'S' shape
(C) A graph in which data points lie on a straight line
(D) A graph in which data points lie on a curve that never reaches an axis but appears to skim
alongside it
37. The gradient of a straight line which passes through (–3, 2) and (–7, –18) is :
(A) –5 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 2
38. Simplify the expression : ln1
(A) e (B) 10
(C) 1 (D) 0
39. Accuray relates to :
(A) the spread of results measured for a particular data point
(B) the difference between measured value and true value
(C) a Gaussian distribution (Gaussian)
(D) random errors
40. Find the mode of the following data series :
Temperature (in K) 439, 437, 441, 438, 437, 436, 441, 440, 437, 442, 440
(A) 441 K (B) 439 K
(C) 437 K (D) 440 K
41. Calculate the minimum error associated with using 100 cm3 volumetric flask that is
accurate to within ±0.1 cm3 .
(A) 0.001 (B) 0.0005
(C) 0.01 (D) 0.005
M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)-A/FRH-41363 8
42. A temperature is measured as 325 ± 4 K. Calculate the signal to noise ratio and state
whether the reading is usable :
(A) The signal to noise ratio is 4 : 1 which means that the reading is usable
(B) The signal to noise ratio is 325 : 1 which means that the reading is usable
(C) The signal to noise ratio is 0.003 : 1 which means that the reading is too unreliable to use
(D) The signal to noise ratio is 81 : 1 which means that the reading is usable
43. What is the name of the system which deals with the running of the actual computer and
not with the programming table ?
(A) Operating system (B) Systems program
(C) Object program (D) Source program
44. What is the innate error in the equilibrium constant, K, given that the temperature is
constant (249 K) and the free energy, G, is –3.14 kJ/mol ? (G = –RT lnK)
(A) = –4.8 × 10–5 (B) = –1.1 × 10–5
(C) = –2.2 × 10–4 (D) = –3.2 × 10–4
45. Labeling a stretch of DNA according to its functions is called :
(A) recombinant DNA technology (B) functional analysis
(C) annotation (D) screening
46. How much of the human genome is actual protein-encoding genes ?
(A) 1% (B) 3%
(C) 95% (D) 20%
47. What step of DNA is skipped during shotgun sequencing ?
(A) Computer analysis (B) Cloning of DNA fragment
(C) Primer reactions (D) Mapping step
48. The most widely scoring matrices used for protein sequence alignments (BLOSUM) is
based on :
(A) Genetic code
(B) Physico-chemical properties
(C) Simple identity
(D) Statistics of observed substitutions in "safe" multiple sequence alignments
49. Normalization is used to reduce errors in data. What kind of errors can be reduced by
normalization ?
(A) Systematic (B) Random
(C) Systematic and Random (D) Gaussian
M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)-A/FRH-41363 9 [Turn over
50. What is a position-specific scoring matrix ?
(A) A similarity matrix calculated specifically for peptides at the ends of proteins
(B) A similarity matrix calculated from a specific subset of alignments representing a sequence
motif
(C) A similarity matrix which incorporates measures of positional periodicities in peptide
sequences
(D) A matrix for comparing sequences according to their position in phylogenetic tree
51. If the enthalpy change for a reaction is zero, Go is equal to :
(A) Ho (B) l nKeq
(C) TSo (D) –TSo
52. The enzyme, DNA polymerase can work only in :
(A) 3'→5' direction (B) 5'→3' direction
(C) Both the direction (D) 5'→5' direction
53. The ratio of purines and pyrimidines in mRNA is not 1 : 1 because the nitrogenous bases
are :
(A) unpaired (B) paired
(C) paired only in loops (D) paired in stems
54. The most common plasmid vector used in genetic engineering is :
(A) PBR 328 (B) PBR 322
(C) PBR 325 (D) PBR 330
55. Bt cotton is :
(A) Cloned plant (B) Transgenic plant
(C) Hybrid plant (D) Mutated plant
56. Three dimensional structure of tRNA is :
(A) L-shaped (B) Clover leaf like
(C) X-shaped (D) Y-shaped
57. A riboside is :
(A) Base + phosphate (B) Ribose + phosphate
(C) Ribose + phosphate + base (D) Ribose + base
58. A segment of DNA has 120 adenine and 120 cytosine bases. The total number of
nucleosides present in the segment is :
(A) 480 (B) 240
(C) 120 (D) 60
M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)-A/FRH-41363 10
59. DNA replication is :
(A) conservative and discontinuous (B) semiconservative and semidiscontinuous
(C) semiconservative and discontinuous (D) conservative
60. Initiation codon of protein synthesis in eucaryotes is :
(A) GUA (B) GCA
(C) CCA (D) AUG
61. Swiss-Prot was established in :
(A) 1980 (B) 1964
(C) 1984 (D) 2006
62. Within NCBI the SNP is :
(A) a database of structural nucleotide and protein
(B) a database of single nucleotide polymorphism
(C) a database for major histo-compatibility complex
(D) none of these
63. The molecular viewer used for mutation in protein sequence is :
(A) Deepview (B) PyMol
(C) Cn3D (D) RasMol
64. Motif is a .........
(A) super secondary structure (B) tertiary structure
(C) secondary structure (D) primary structure
65. The colour of phosphorus atom in Rasmol is :
(A) white (B) yellow
(C) red (D) orange
66. The percentage of safe zone in homology modelling is :
(A) ≥40% (B) ≥30%
(C) ≥25% (D) ≥20%
67. The first protein to be sequenced is :
(A) haemoglobin (B) tannin
(C) insulin (D) myosin
M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)-A/FRH-41363 11 [Turn over
68. Myoglobin and subunits of hemoglobin have :
(A) very different primary and tertiary structure
(B) very similar primary and tertiary structure
(C) very similar primary structures but different tertiary structures
(D) very similar tertiary structures, but different primary structures
69. Which of the following six-membered ring compounds has the most planar structure ?
(A) Glucose (B) Cytosine
(C) Cyclohexane (D) Inositol
70. You hold a rubber ball in your hand. The Newton's third law companion force to the force
of gravity on the ball is the force exerted by the :
(A) ball on the earth (B) ball on the hand
(C) hand on the ball (D) earth on the ball
71. De Broglie hypothesized that the linear momentum and wavelength of a free massive
particle are related by which of the following constants ?
(A) Planck's constant (B) Boltzmann constant
(C) The Rydberg constant (D) Avogadro's number
72. An electron has total energy equal to four times its rest energy. The momentum of the
electron is :
(A) mc (B) 2 mc
(C) 15 mc (D) 4 mc
73. In the diamond structure of elemental carbon, the nearest neighbours of each C atom lie at the corners of a :
(A) square (B) hexagon
(C) cube (D) tetrahedron
74. The root mean square speed of molecules of mass 'm' in an ideal gas at temperature T is :
(A) 2kT/m (B) 3kT/m
(C) 0 (D) kT/m
75. The average translational energy of any ideal gas depends only on :
(A) the absolute temperature (B) the mass of the gas
(C) the pressure of the gas (D) whether the gas is monatomic or diatomic
Question Booklet Series : A Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.
Signature of the Candidate :
Subject : M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)
Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.
M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)/A
1. Which parts of amino acids are involved in peptide bonds ?
(A) The carboxyl group on one amino acid and the side chain on the other
(B) The carboxyl group on both amino acids
(C) The amino group on one amino acid and the carboxyl group on the other
(D) The amino group on both amino acids
2. What provides the information necessary to specify the three-dimensional shape of a
protein ?
(A) The protein's peptide bonds
(B) The protein's interactions with other polypeptides
(C) The protein's amino acid sequence
(D) The protein's interaction with molecular chaperones
3. The biological activity of a protein is determined by its :
(A) peptide bonds (B) amino acid sequence
(C) ability to form helices (D) ability to form sheets
4. Those portions of a transmembrane protein that cross the lipid bilayer usually consist of
which structures ?
(A) A sheet with mostly polar side chains
(B) A sheet with mostly nonpolar side chains
(C) An helix with mostly polar side chains
(D) An helix with mostly nonpolar side chains
5. What is the name for a modular unit from which many larger proteins are made ?
(A) Protein domain (B) helix
(C) Globular domain (D) sheet
6. How many identical binding sites exist on an antibody ?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
7. What determines the specificity of an antibody for its antigen ?
(A) The amino acid loops in its variable domain
(B) The amino acid loops in its constant domain
(C) Its Y-shaped structure
(D) The concentration of antibodies and antigens
M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)-A/FRH-41363 4
8. Which set of the following amino acids are all polar ?
(A) W K Q (B) H M N
(C) T N Y (D) M T C
9. Which of the following can best be related to tertiary protein structure ?
(A) helix (B) Greek key
(C) Myoglobin (D) Hemoglobin
10. Edman reagent cleaves polypeptides :
(A) after M residues (B) after positively charged residues
(C) at the C-terminus (D) at the N-terminus
11. What type of glycosidic bond is present in lactose ?
(A) (1→2) (B) (1→2)
(C) (1→4) (D) (1→4)
12. What buffer system is predominantly used in the blood ?
(A) phosphate (B) bicarbonate
(C) citrate (D) tris
13. The purity of an enzyme at various stages of purification is best measured by :
(A) Total protein (B) Total enzyme activity
(C) Specific activity of the enzyme (D) Percent recovery of the enzyme
14. The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation :
(A) allows the graphic determination of the molecular weight of an acid from its pH alone
(B) employs the same value for pKa for all weak acids
(C) is equally useful with solutions of acetic acid and hydrochloric acid
(D) relates the pH of a solution to the pKa and the concentrations of acid and conjugate base
15. The personal-computer industry was started by :
(A) IBM (B) Apple
(C) COMPAQ (D) HCL
16. What is the name given to the molecular-scale computer ?
(A) Femto computer (B) Nano computer
(C) Super computer (D) Micro computer
M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)-A/FRH-41363 5 [Turn over
17. A computer has a 1024 K memory. What does the letter K stand for ?
(A) Kilometre (B) Thousand
(C) 1024 (D) MB
18. Which memory stores the values of variables ?
(A) SAM (B) ROM
(C) RAM (D) PROM
19. Which of the following keyboards is the fastest ?
(A) Dvorak (B) QWERTY
(C) Alphanumeric (D) Numeric
20. A sequence of one or more character is :
(A) Group (B) Block
(C) Field (D) String
21. The operating system manages :
(A) Memory (B) Disks and I/O devices
(C) Processor (D) All of the above
22. Which of the following program is not a utility ?
(A) Debugger (B) Editor
(C) Spooler (D) All of the above
23. Which of the following would be correct units for the rate constant of a reaction that is
second order overall ?
(A) s–1 (B) mol–1 dm3 s–1
(C) mol cm–3 s–1 (D) mol–2 dm6 s–1
24. Predict the geometry of a molecule in which the bonding may be described using the
valence bond model as being made up of sp3 hybrid orbitals on the central atom :
(A) trigonal bipyramedal (B) square planar
(C) tetrahedral (D) octahedral
25. How many normal modes of vibrational are possible for a benzene molecule ?
(A) 6 (B) 30
(C) 12 (D) 31
M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)-A/FRH-41363 6
26. NMR is observed in what region of the electromagnetic spectrum ?
(A) Radiofrequency region (B) Microwave region
(C) IR region (D) Gamma ray region
27. What is the difference between 2-chloropentane and 3-chloropentane ?
(A) the number of carbon atoms in the molecule
(B) the number of chlorine atoms in the molecule
(C) the position of the chlorine atom in the molecule
(D) the geometry of the carbon chain
28. Which bonds are formed by a carbon atom with sp2 hybridization ?
(A) 4bonds (B) 2and 2bonds
(C) 1and 3bonds (D) 4bonds
29. Which technique can be used to determine the number of components in a plant
pigment ?
(A) Calorimetry (B) Chromatography
(C) Colorimetry (D) Gravimetry
30. Which salt is colorless ?
(A) KMnO4 (B) Na2CrO4
(C) CoCl2 (D) BaSO4
31. Which property of electromagnetic radiation is inversely related ?
(A) energy and wavelength (B) amplitude and frequency
(C) energy and frequency (D) wavelength and amplitude
32. Which functional group is not found in proteins ?
(A) alcohol (B) amide
(C) amine (D) aldehyde
33. What happens to the pH of a buffer solution when it is diluted by a factor of 10 ?
(A) the buffer pH decreases by 1 unit
(B) the buffer pH increases by 1 unit
(C) the pH does not change appreciably
(D) the change in pH depends on the buffer used
M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)-A/FRH-41363 7 [Turn over
34. The value of x and y that satisfy the following equations :
y = –3x + 5
y = 2x – 10
(A) x = –3, y = 14 (B) x = 3 y = –4
(C) x = –3 y = –16 (D) x = –5 y = 20
35. Factorise 100 – y2 :
(A) (10 – y) (10 + y) (B) (50 – y) (2 + y)
(C) (10 – y)2 (D) (10 + y) (10 + y)
36. Select the best definition of a Sigmoidal graph :
(A) A graph where two linear regions meet
(B) A graph which has an 'S' shape
(C) A graph in which data points lie on a straight line
(D) A graph in which data points lie on a curve that never reaches an axis but appears to skim
alongside it
37. The gradient of a straight line which passes through (–3, 2) and (–7, –18) is :
(A) –5 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 2
38. Simplify the expression : ln1
(A) e (B) 10
(C) 1 (D) 0
39. Accuray relates to :
(A) the spread of results measured for a particular data point
(B) the difference between measured value and true value
(C) a Gaussian distribution (Gaussian)
(D) random errors
40. Find the mode of the following data series :
Temperature (in K) 439, 437, 441, 438, 437, 436, 441, 440, 437, 442, 440
(A) 441 K (B) 439 K
(C) 437 K (D) 440 K
41. Calculate the minimum error associated with using 100 cm3 volumetric flask that is
accurate to within ±0.1 cm3 .
(A) 0.001 (B) 0.0005
(C) 0.01 (D) 0.005
M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)-A/FRH-41363 8
42. A temperature is measured as 325 ± 4 K. Calculate the signal to noise ratio and state
whether the reading is usable :
(A) The signal to noise ratio is 4 : 1 which means that the reading is usable
(B) The signal to noise ratio is 325 : 1 which means that the reading is usable
(C) The signal to noise ratio is 0.003 : 1 which means that the reading is too unreliable to use
(D) The signal to noise ratio is 81 : 1 which means that the reading is usable
43. What is the name of the system which deals with the running of the actual computer and
not with the programming table ?
(A) Operating system (B) Systems program
(C) Object program (D) Source program
44. What is the innate error in the equilibrium constant, K, given that the temperature is
constant (249 K) and the free energy, G, is –3.14 kJ/mol ? (G = –RT lnK)
(A) = –4.8 × 10–5 (B) = –1.1 × 10–5
(C) = –2.2 × 10–4 (D) = –3.2 × 10–4
45. Labeling a stretch of DNA according to its functions is called :
(A) recombinant DNA technology (B) functional analysis
(C) annotation (D) screening
46. How much of the human genome is actual protein-encoding genes ?
(A) 1% (B) 3%
(C) 95% (D) 20%
47. What step of DNA is skipped during shotgun sequencing ?
(A) Computer analysis (B) Cloning of DNA fragment
(C) Primer reactions (D) Mapping step
48. The most widely scoring matrices used for protein sequence alignments (BLOSUM) is
based on :
(A) Genetic code
(B) Physico-chemical properties
(C) Simple identity
(D) Statistics of observed substitutions in "safe" multiple sequence alignments
49. Normalization is used to reduce errors in data. What kind of errors can be reduced by
normalization ?
(A) Systematic (B) Random
(C) Systematic and Random (D) Gaussian
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50. What is a position-specific scoring matrix ?
(A) A similarity matrix calculated specifically for peptides at the ends of proteins
(B) A similarity matrix calculated from a specific subset of alignments representing a sequence
motif
(C) A similarity matrix which incorporates measures of positional periodicities in peptide
sequences
(D) A matrix for comparing sequences according to their position in phylogenetic tree
51. If the enthalpy change for a reaction is zero, Go is equal to :
(A) Ho (B) l nKeq
(C) TSo (D) –TSo
52. The enzyme, DNA polymerase can work only in :
(A) 3'→5' direction (B) 5'→3' direction
(C) Both the direction (D) 5'→5' direction
53. The ratio of purines and pyrimidines in mRNA is not 1 : 1 because the nitrogenous bases
are :
(A) unpaired (B) paired
(C) paired only in loops (D) paired in stems
54. The most common plasmid vector used in genetic engineering is :
(A) PBR 328 (B) PBR 322
(C) PBR 325 (D) PBR 330
55. Bt cotton is :
(A) Cloned plant (B) Transgenic plant
(C) Hybrid plant (D) Mutated plant
56. Three dimensional structure of tRNA is :
(A) L-shaped (B) Clover leaf like
(C) X-shaped (D) Y-shaped
57. A riboside is :
(A) Base + phosphate (B) Ribose + phosphate
(C) Ribose + phosphate + base (D) Ribose + base
58. A segment of DNA has 120 adenine and 120 cytosine bases. The total number of
nucleosides present in the segment is :
(A) 480 (B) 240
(C) 120 (D) 60
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59. DNA replication is :
(A) conservative and discontinuous (B) semiconservative and semidiscontinuous
(C) semiconservative and discontinuous (D) conservative
60. Initiation codon of protein synthesis in eucaryotes is :
(A) GUA (B) GCA
(C) CCA (D) AUG
61. Swiss-Prot was established in :
(A) 1980 (B) 1964
(C) 1984 (D) 2006
62. Within NCBI the SNP is :
(A) a database of structural nucleotide and protein
(B) a database of single nucleotide polymorphism
(C) a database for major histo-compatibility complex
(D) none of these
63. The molecular viewer used for mutation in protein sequence is :
(A) Deepview (B) PyMol
(C) Cn3D (D) RasMol
64. Motif is a .........
(A) super secondary structure (B) tertiary structure
(C) secondary structure (D) primary structure
65. The colour of phosphorus atom in Rasmol is :
(A) white (B) yellow
(C) red (D) orange
66. The percentage of safe zone in homology modelling is :
(A) ≥40% (B) ≥30%
(C) ≥25% (D) ≥20%
67. The first protein to be sequenced is :
(A) haemoglobin (B) tannin
(C) insulin (D) myosin
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68. Myoglobin and subunits of hemoglobin have :
(A) very different primary and tertiary structure
(B) very similar primary and tertiary structure
(C) very similar primary structures but different tertiary structures
(D) very similar tertiary structures, but different primary structures
69. Which of the following six-membered ring compounds has the most planar structure ?
(A) Glucose (B) Cytosine
(C) Cyclohexane (D) Inositol
70. You hold a rubber ball in your hand. The Newton's third law companion force to the force
of gravity on the ball is the force exerted by the :
(A) ball on the earth (B) ball on the hand
(C) hand on the ball (D) earth on the ball
71. De Broglie hypothesized that the linear momentum and wavelength of a free massive
particle are related by which of the following constants ?
(A) Planck's constant (B) Boltzmann constant
(C) The Rydberg constant (D) Avogadro's number
72. An electron has total energy equal to four times its rest energy. The momentum of the
electron is :
(A) mc (B) 2 mc
(C) 15 mc (D) 4 mc
73. In the diamond structure of elemental carbon, the nearest neighbours of each C atom lie at the corners of a :
(A) square (B) hexagon
(C) cube (D) tetrahedron
74. The root mean square speed of molecules of mass 'm' in an ideal gas at temperature T is :
(A) 2kT/m (B) 3kT/m
(C) 0 (D) kT/m
75. The average translational energy of any ideal gas depends only on :
(A) the absolute temperature (B) the mass of the gas
(C) the pressure of the gas (D) whether the gas is monatomic or diatomic
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