OCET-2012 - Punjab University Question Paper M.Sc Physics/Medical Physics/Physics/Electronics
Question Booklet Series : A
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
Answer Sheet Serial No.
Signature of the Candidate :
Subject : M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/Medical Physics/Physics & Electronics)
Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the
corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal(s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not
allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.
Sr. No. :
M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/Medical Physics/ 2
Physics & Electronics/FRH-41359/A +
M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/Medical Physics/ 3 [Turn over
Physics & Electronics/FRH-41359/A +
1. In the Michelson interferometer, the compensating plate is used for
(A) inducing symmetry in the optical elements
(B) compensating the extra path traversed by reflected waves during splitting of beam
(C) getting circular shape of interference fringes
(D) Replacing bright central fringe with dark one
2. The output of the Nicol prism, when monochromatic natural light is incident on it, is
(A) ordinary ray with vibrations perpendicular to optic axis of crystal
(B) extraordinary ray with vibrations parallel to optic axis of crystal
(C) extraordinary ray with vibrations perpendicular to optic axis of crystal
(D) ordinary ray with vibrations parallel to optic axis of crystal
3. The role of Helium atoms in the He-Ne laser is to
(A) help in excitation and population inversion of Neon atoms
(B) help in maintaining optical resonance
(C) result in the emission of red colour light
(D) Absorb
4. The colours observed on the surface spilled on the roads are due to
(A) Thin film interference
(B) Newton ring formation
(C) Dispersion of light by the oil film
(D) Scattering of different colours of white light by thin film
5. A thick sheet of glass 3.7 μm is placed in the path of one of the interfering beams, of the wavelength
550 nm, in the Fresnel biprism arrangement. If the central maximum is shifted to the
position earlier occupied by the 5th bright fringe, the refractive index of the sheet is
(A) 1.65 (B) 1.54
(C) 1.74 (D) 1.43
6. Calculate the radius of 3rd half period zone of the zone plate of focal length 1.5 m illuminated
by light of wavelength 593 nm
(A) 2.04 mm (B) 1.98 mm
(C) 1.07 mm (D) 1.63 mm
M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/
Medical Physics/Physics & Electronics/A
M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/Medical Physics/ 4
Physics & Electronics/FRH-41359/A +
7. A parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm is incident normally on a plane
diffraction grating having 400 lines per centimetre. The angle of diffraction for first order principal
maxima is given by
(A) sin = 0.5 (B) sin = 0.7
(C) sin = 0.2 (D) sin = 0.1
8. The interference differs from the diffraction in that
(A) It can be observed with white light
(B) Unlike diffraction the interference fringes are of varying intensity
(C) Interference minima are perfectly dark but that of diffraction are not so
(D) The diffraction fringes are of equal width but interference fringes are of unequal width
9. Which of the following is not an experimental technique to obtain a polarised beam of light ?
(A) Dichorism (B) Reflection from a clear liquid surface
(C) Interference by division of wavefront (D) Double refraction
10. A ray of light strikes a glass plate at an angle of 60°. If the reflected and refracted light are
perpendicular to each other, the refractive index of the glass is
(A) 1.3 (B) 2.1
(C) 1.9 (D) 1.7
11. In the Young’s double slit experiment performed with white light, the colour of the central fringe
will be
(A) white (B) black
(C) red (D) violet
12. The pumping source for ruby laser is
(A) Electrical discharge (B) Xenon flash lamp
(C) Chemical luminescence (D) Plasma formation
13. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an under-damped oscillating system ?
(A) frequency of oscillations is lower than that for free oscillator
(B) amplitude of oscillations decreases with each oscillation
(C) energy of the oscillating system remains is conserved throughout the process of oscillation
(D) dissipative forces are smaller than the restoring forces
M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/Medical Physics/ 5 [Turn over
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14. Calculate the maximum current in the RC harmonic oscillator consisting of inductance of
0.2 mH and capacitance of 5.12 μF, when maximum voltage across the capacitor is 0.1 V.
(A) 16 mA (B) 8 mA
(C) 4 mA (D) 10 mA
15. The forced series LCR electrical oscillator is not characterised by which of the following
properties ?
(A) at resonance, the inductive and capacitive reactance counterbalance each other
(B) The current is maximum at resonance
(C) The power absorption from source is minimum at resonance
(D) Oscillation frequency solely depends upon the inductance and capacitance at resonance
16. When electromagnetic wave propagates through a dielectric medium, then
(A) Electric and magnetic fields oscillate in phase and with same frequency
(B) Electric and magnetic fields oscillate in phase but not with same frequency
(C) Magnetic field oscillates with a phase lag relative to electric field
(D) Electric field oscillates with a phase lag relative to magnetic field
17. The relative permittivity of the medium is 3.24. The refractive index of this medium will be :
(A) 2.2 (B) 1.8
(C) 1.6 (D) 2.0
18. The Poynting vector associated with an electromagnetic wave gives the information about :
(A) power flux and direction of propagation of EM wave
(B) frequency of EM wave
(C) rate of oscillations of electric and magnetic field intensities
(D) dispersive power of the medium through which EM wave is propagating
19. The electric field intensity (in SI units) inside a charged spherical shell of radius 15 m and surface
charge density 15 μC per m2 is
(A) 1 (B) 1/15
(C) 0 (D) 15
20. The electric lines of force at any point on the equipotential surfaces
(A) are parallel to it (B) are inclined at acute angles
(C) are normal to it (D) are inclined at obtuse angles
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21. A current of 10A flows through a conductor of cross-section 1 mm2. If the density of charge
carriers is 1021 cm–3, then calculate the drift velocity of electrons
(A) 6.25 cm/s (B) 6.25 mm/s
(C) 62.5 m/s (D) 0.625 mm/s
22. The resistivity of conductor increases with temperature because of
(A) Decrease of relaxation time (B) Increase in relaxation time
(C) Increase in mean free path of electrons (D) Increase in charge carrier density
23. The magnetic field intensity due to a long current carrying solenoid is proportional to
(A) Inversely proportional to current
(B) Directly proportional to number of turns of wire
(C) Independent of permeability of core introduced
(D) Inversely proportional to permeability of core
24. Electrical resistance of conductor owes its origin to
(A) surface barrier potential binding the electrons
(B) thermal vibration of electrons
(C) scattering of electrons by vibrating lattice ions
(D) scattering of electrons by vibrating lattice ions as well as impurity atoms/ions
25. Which of the following processes makes use of electromagnetic induction ?
(A) Charging a storage battery
(B) Magnetising an iron piece with a bar magnet
(C) Generation of hydroelectricity
(D) Magnetising a soft iron piece by placing inside a current carrying solenoid
26. The atomic unit of electric dipole moment is
(A) 1 Debye = 3.33 × 10–30 cm (B) 1 Debye = 3.33 × 10–28 cm
(C) 1 Debye = 3 × 10–32 cm (D) 1 Debye = 3 × 10–29 cm
27. The ratio E(axial)/E(Equatorial) between axial and equatorial electric fields due to a short electric
dipole is
(A) 1.5 (B) 2.0
(C) 1.0 (D) 0.5
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28. Two streams of electrons moving parallel to each other in the same direction
(A) Attract each other (B) Repel each other
(C) Cancel the electric field of each other (D) Cancel the magnetic field of each other
29. Which of the following is based on law of conservation of energy ?
(A) Faraday’s law (B) Ampere’s theorem
(C) Lenz’s law (D) Biot-Savert law
30. The ferromagnetic materials are characterized by
(A) negative value of susceptibility (B) small but positive value of susceptibility
(C) large positive value of susceptibility (D) zero value of susceptibility
31. An electric dipole is placed in a uniform electric field, it is acted upon by
(A) a force and a torque (B) neither a force nor a torque
(C) a torque only (D) a force only
32. A bar magnet is cut into two equal pieces. The pole strength of either piece will be
(A) halved (B) unchanged
(C) doubled (D) reduced to zero
33. Ferrites are the materials, which are not characterized by
(A) negative electrical conductivity
(B) rectangular shaped hysteresis loop
(C) high Joule’s heating on current flow
(D) two sub-lattices with unequal and opposite magnetic moments
34. To shield an instrument from the external magnetic field, it may be placed in the cabinet made
of
(A) wood (B) ebonite
(C) metal (D) diamagnetic substance
35. In a region where electric field is 5 N/C, 40 lines of electric force are crossing per m2. The number
of lines crossing per m2, where the electric field intensity is 10 N/C will be
(A) 20 (B) 80
(C) 100 (D) 200
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36. The length of the metre stick moving parallel to its length, when its mass is 1.5 times its rest
mass, is
(A) 150 cm (B) 66.7 cm
(C) 75 cm (D) 125 cm
37. The planets revolving around the sun in the solar system obey the law, relating their time
period of revolution and average radius of orbit, expressed as :
(A) T ∝r3 (B) T2 ∝r3
(C) T2 ∝r5 (D) T ∝r
38. The aircraft at take off stage is an example of
(A) Inertial reference frame (B) Non-inertial reference frame
(C) Universal reference frame (D) Fictitious reference frame
39. The radius of carbon atom in the diamond crystal structure having cubic unit cell edge
16 3 nm is
(A) 6 nm (B) 8 nm
(C) 16 3 nm (D) 8 3 nm
40. The continuous component X-ray spectrum owes its origin to
(A) Photoelectric effect (B) Bremmstahlung
(C) Pair production (D) Compton effect
41. The well defined wave function must not be
(A) single valued
(B) continuous w.r.t. space coordinates
(C) obeying the principle of superposition
(D) always a real function
42. The moving particle confined in an infinite potential well is not characterised by which of the
following ?
(A) quantized negative energy states
(B) ground state not the state of rest
(C) quantized wavefunctions defining different probability distribution for the particle
(D) quantized positive energy states
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43. Which of the following energy terms does not contribute in the binding energy formula derived
using liquid drop model for nucleus ?
(A) Surface energy (B) Asymmetry energy
(C) Heisenberg Exchange energy (D) Coulomb’s energy
44. For the alpha decay from natural radionuclides, which of the following observations does not
hold true ?
(A) The emission of alpha particle takes place following tunnelling of barrier
(B) The energetic alpha particles are emitted by radionuclide with shorter half life
(C) The energy required by alpha particle to penetrate a radionuclide is much smaller than the kinetic
energy of alpha particle emitted by that radionuclide
(D) The alpha decaying radionuclides have mass number greater than 200
45. Which of the following properties is not associated with the neutrino particle ?
(A) nearly zero mass (B) no charge
(C) integral spin (D) spin = 1/2
46. A radioactive specimen, consisting of 10000 active atoms, has a half life of 1 hour. How many
radioactive atoms will be left in the specimen after a duration of 3 hours ?
(A) 1250 (B) 5000
(C) 2500 (D) 7500
47. A radionuclide, with mass number A and Atomic number Z, undergoes positron decay. The product
will be characterized by
(A) Mass number = A, Atomic number = Z – 1
(B) Mass number = A, Atomic number = Z + 1
(C) Mass number = A + 1, Atomic number = Z – 1
(D) Mass number = A – 1, Atomic number = Z – 1
48. Which of the following does not support the shell structure of the nucleus ?
(A) Extra stability for nuclei with proton or/and neutron number equal to one of the magic numbers
(B) Low natural abundance of nuclei with proton or/and neutron number equal to one of the magic
numbers
(C) Nuclei with proton or/and numbers equal to magic numbers are spherical in shape
(D) Nuclei, with proton or/and neutron numbers equal to one of the magic numbers, have large number
of isotopes
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49. Quadrupole moment of a doubly magic nucleus is always
(A) positive but small (B) negative but large
(C) zero (D) positive and large
50. The radius of 8Be4 nucleus is 2.4 fm. The radius of 27Al13 nucleus will be
(A) 4.8 fm (B) 3.6 fm
(C) 3.0 fm (D) 4.2 fm
51. Which of the following is not a natural radioactive series ?
(A) Uranium Series (B) Thorium Series
(C) Actinium Series (D) Lead Series
52. The kinetic energy of each of the electron and positron generated in the pair production of
1.522 MeV will be
(A) 0.756 MeV (B) 200 keV
(C) 400 keV (D) 150 keV
53. A photon of 45 picometre wavelength undergoes scattering by loosely bound electron nearly at
rest. The maximum wavelength of the scattered photon will be
(A) 40.2 picometre (B) 35.2 picometre
(C) 49.8 picometre (D) 48.2 picometre
54. Which of the following phenomena are not explicable using wave nature of light ?
(A) photoelectric effect (B) Doppler effect
(C) Compton effect (D) Gravitational red shift
55. The photoelectric emission of K-shell electron, with binding energy of 3.2 eV, is caused by a
6.5 keV photon. The kinetic energy of emitted electron is
(A) 9.7 keV (B) 4.85 keV
(C) 3.3 keV (D) 3.2 keV
56. The atomic packing fraction of face-centred cubic is
(A)
3 2
(B)
(C) (D)
2
3
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57. Number of atoms per unit cell in case of body-centred cubic is
(A) 2 (B) 1
(C) 3 (D) 4
58. For the van der Waal’s force, the dependence of the interaction energy on distance r is proportional
to
(A) ~ r–6 (B) ~ r–7
(C) ~ r–3 (D) ~ r–2
59. A 214Pb (Z = 82) nucleus decays via two – decays and one alpha decay, the resulting nucleus is
(A) 210Pb (B) 210Bi
(C) 210Au (D) 210Pt
60. Miller indices of the plane parallel to the x-axis and y-axis are
(A) (0, 0, 1) (B) (1, 0, 0)
(C) (0, 1, 0) (D) (1, 1, 0)
61. In case of a system of identical, indistinguishable particles obeying Pauli exclusion principle,
the number of particles in each state at the temperature T is proportional to (k is Boltzmann
constant and f is the Fermi energy)
exp[( ) /(AkT) ] 1
1
f −(B) exp[( ) / kT] 1
1
f −−
(C) 1 exp[( ) / kT]
1
f −−(D) exp[ / kT] 1
1
62. The range of strong interactions is
(A) ~ 10–15 m (B) ~ 10–12 m
(C) ~ 10–10 m (D) ~ 10–13 m
63. In an p-type Silicon, which of the following statements is true ?
(A) Electrons are majority carriers and pentavalent atoms are the dopants
(B) Electrons are majority carriers and pentavalent Atoms are dopants
(C) Electrons are minority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants
(D) Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants
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64. In full wave rectifier with input frequency of 50 Hz, the frequency of the output is
(A) 50 Hz (B) 100 Hz
(C) 150 Hz (D) 200 Hz
65. For a transistor amplifier, the voltage gain
(A) remains constant for all frequencies
(B) is high at high and low frequencies and constant in the middle frequencies
(C) is low at high and low frequencies, and constant middle frequencies
(D) is continuously decreasing with frequency
66. In case of the transistor connected in the common emitter configuration, the input resistance is
defined as ratio of
(A) change in VCE and to change in VBE, with IB kept constant
(B) change in VCE and to change in IC, with IB kept constant
(C) change in VBE and to change in VCE, IB with kept constant
(D) change in IB and to change in VBE, with VCE kept constant
67. Two amplifiers are connected one after the other in series. The first amplifier has a voltage gain
of A1 and the second has a voltage gain of A2. The overall gain of the combination will be
(A) A1A2 (B) A1 + A2
(C) A1 – A2 (D) A1/A2
68. The least preferred principal crystal structures for the metallic crystals is
(A) Simple cubic (B) Body centred cubic
(C) Face centred cubic (D) Hexagonal
69. The base of an npn transistor is
(A) heavily doped (B) lightly doped
(C) metallic (D) Doped by pentavalent material
70. A reverse voltage of 10 V is applied across a Si diode. The magnitude of voltage across the depletion
layer will be
(A) 0 V (B) ~ 0.7 V
(C) ~ 10 V (D) ~ 1.1 V
M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/Medical Physics/ 13 [Turn over
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71. The thermally generated electrons and holes acquire sufficient energy from the applied
potential to produce new carriers by removing valence electrons from their bonds. These new
carriers in turn produce additional carriers again through the process of disrupting bonds. The
cumulative process is referred to as
(A) Avalanche breakdown (B) Zener breakdown
(C) Avalanche multiplication (D) Zener multiplication
72. The basic Collpitts oscillators uses
(A) two inductor and one capacitors (B) one inductor and two capacitors
(C) two capacitors (D) Tickler coil
73. The light emitted diodes consist of
(A) GaAs (B) GalnP
(C) GaAllnP (D) InAs
74. VLSI circuits are integrated circuits having
(A) more than 10 gates (B) more than 1000 gates
(C) more than 100 gates (D) no gate
75. The Michelson-Morley experiment was performed with object to study
(A) Presence of hypothetical medium ether
(B) To study the variation of speed of light in different medium
(C) To study variation of speed of light along different directions in space
(D) It was a sophisticated optical experiment to study the orbital velocity of earth
Question Booklet Series : A
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
Answer Sheet Serial No.
Signature of the Candidate :
Subject : M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/Medical Physics/Physics & Electronics)
Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the
corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal(s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not
allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.
Sr. No. :
M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/Medical Physics/ 2
Physics & Electronics/FRH-41359/A +
M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/Medical Physics/ 3 [Turn over
Physics & Electronics/FRH-41359/A +
1. In the Michelson interferometer, the compensating plate is used for
(A) inducing symmetry in the optical elements
(B) compensating the extra path traversed by reflected waves during splitting of beam
(C) getting circular shape of interference fringes
(D) Replacing bright central fringe with dark one
2. The output of the Nicol prism, when monochromatic natural light is incident on it, is
(A) ordinary ray with vibrations perpendicular to optic axis of crystal
(B) extraordinary ray with vibrations parallel to optic axis of crystal
(C) extraordinary ray with vibrations perpendicular to optic axis of crystal
(D) ordinary ray with vibrations parallel to optic axis of crystal
3. The role of Helium atoms in the He-Ne laser is to
(A) help in excitation and population inversion of Neon atoms
(B) help in maintaining optical resonance
(C) result in the emission of red colour light
(D) Absorb
4. The colours observed on the surface spilled on the roads are due to
(A) Thin film interference
(B) Newton ring formation
(C) Dispersion of light by the oil film
(D) Scattering of different colours of white light by thin film
5. A thick sheet of glass 3.7 μm is placed in the path of one of the interfering beams, of the wavelength
550 nm, in the Fresnel biprism arrangement. If the central maximum is shifted to the
position earlier occupied by the 5th bright fringe, the refractive index of the sheet is
(A) 1.65 (B) 1.54
(C) 1.74 (D) 1.43
6. Calculate the radius of 3rd half period zone of the zone plate of focal length 1.5 m illuminated
by light of wavelength 593 nm
(A) 2.04 mm (B) 1.98 mm
(C) 1.07 mm (D) 1.63 mm
M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/
Medical Physics/Physics & Electronics/A
M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/Medical Physics/ 4
Physics & Electronics/FRH-41359/A +
7. A parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm is incident normally on a plane
diffraction grating having 400 lines per centimetre. The angle of diffraction for first order principal
maxima is given by
(A) sin = 0.5 (B) sin = 0.7
(C) sin = 0.2 (D) sin = 0.1
8. The interference differs from the diffraction in that
(A) It can be observed with white light
(B) Unlike diffraction the interference fringes are of varying intensity
(C) Interference minima are perfectly dark but that of diffraction are not so
(D) The diffraction fringes are of equal width but interference fringes are of unequal width
9. Which of the following is not an experimental technique to obtain a polarised beam of light ?
(A) Dichorism (B) Reflection from a clear liquid surface
(C) Interference by division of wavefront (D) Double refraction
10. A ray of light strikes a glass plate at an angle of 60°. If the reflected and refracted light are
perpendicular to each other, the refractive index of the glass is
(A) 1.3 (B) 2.1
(C) 1.9 (D) 1.7
11. In the Young’s double slit experiment performed with white light, the colour of the central fringe
will be
(A) white (B) black
(C) red (D) violet
12. The pumping source for ruby laser is
(A) Electrical discharge (B) Xenon flash lamp
(C) Chemical luminescence (D) Plasma formation
13. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an under-damped oscillating system ?
(A) frequency of oscillations is lower than that for free oscillator
(B) amplitude of oscillations decreases with each oscillation
(C) energy of the oscillating system remains is conserved throughout the process of oscillation
(D) dissipative forces are smaller than the restoring forces
M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/Medical Physics/ 5 [Turn over
Physics & Electronics/FRH-41359/A +
14. Calculate the maximum current in the RC harmonic oscillator consisting of inductance of
0.2 mH and capacitance of 5.12 μF, when maximum voltage across the capacitor is 0.1 V.
(A) 16 mA (B) 8 mA
(C) 4 mA (D) 10 mA
15. The forced series LCR electrical oscillator is not characterised by which of the following
properties ?
(A) at resonance, the inductive and capacitive reactance counterbalance each other
(B) The current is maximum at resonance
(C) The power absorption from source is minimum at resonance
(D) Oscillation frequency solely depends upon the inductance and capacitance at resonance
16. When electromagnetic wave propagates through a dielectric medium, then
(A) Electric and magnetic fields oscillate in phase and with same frequency
(B) Electric and magnetic fields oscillate in phase but not with same frequency
(C) Magnetic field oscillates with a phase lag relative to electric field
(D) Electric field oscillates with a phase lag relative to magnetic field
17. The relative permittivity of the medium is 3.24. The refractive index of this medium will be :
(A) 2.2 (B) 1.8
(C) 1.6 (D) 2.0
18. The Poynting vector associated with an electromagnetic wave gives the information about :
(A) power flux and direction of propagation of EM wave
(B) frequency of EM wave
(C) rate of oscillations of electric and magnetic field intensities
(D) dispersive power of the medium through which EM wave is propagating
19. The electric field intensity (in SI units) inside a charged spherical shell of radius 15 m and surface
charge density 15 μC per m2 is
(A) 1 (B) 1/15
(C) 0 (D) 15
20. The electric lines of force at any point on the equipotential surfaces
(A) are parallel to it (B) are inclined at acute angles
(C) are normal to it (D) are inclined at obtuse angles
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21. A current of 10A flows through a conductor of cross-section 1 mm2. If the density of charge
carriers is 1021 cm–3, then calculate the drift velocity of electrons
(A) 6.25 cm/s (B) 6.25 mm/s
(C) 62.5 m/s (D) 0.625 mm/s
22. The resistivity of conductor increases with temperature because of
(A) Decrease of relaxation time (B) Increase in relaxation time
(C) Increase in mean free path of electrons (D) Increase in charge carrier density
23. The magnetic field intensity due to a long current carrying solenoid is proportional to
(A) Inversely proportional to current
(B) Directly proportional to number of turns of wire
(C) Independent of permeability of core introduced
(D) Inversely proportional to permeability of core
24. Electrical resistance of conductor owes its origin to
(A) surface barrier potential binding the electrons
(B) thermal vibration of electrons
(C) scattering of electrons by vibrating lattice ions
(D) scattering of electrons by vibrating lattice ions as well as impurity atoms/ions
25. Which of the following processes makes use of electromagnetic induction ?
(A) Charging a storage battery
(B) Magnetising an iron piece with a bar magnet
(C) Generation of hydroelectricity
(D) Magnetising a soft iron piece by placing inside a current carrying solenoid
26. The atomic unit of electric dipole moment is
(A) 1 Debye = 3.33 × 10–30 cm (B) 1 Debye = 3.33 × 10–28 cm
(C) 1 Debye = 3 × 10–32 cm (D) 1 Debye = 3 × 10–29 cm
27. The ratio E(axial)/E(Equatorial) between axial and equatorial electric fields due to a short electric
dipole is
(A) 1.5 (B) 2.0
(C) 1.0 (D) 0.5
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28. Two streams of electrons moving parallel to each other in the same direction
(A) Attract each other (B) Repel each other
(C) Cancel the electric field of each other (D) Cancel the magnetic field of each other
29. Which of the following is based on law of conservation of energy ?
(A) Faraday’s law (B) Ampere’s theorem
(C) Lenz’s law (D) Biot-Savert law
30. The ferromagnetic materials are characterized by
(A) negative value of susceptibility (B) small but positive value of susceptibility
(C) large positive value of susceptibility (D) zero value of susceptibility
31. An electric dipole is placed in a uniform electric field, it is acted upon by
(A) a force and a torque (B) neither a force nor a torque
(C) a torque only (D) a force only
32. A bar magnet is cut into two equal pieces. The pole strength of either piece will be
(A) halved (B) unchanged
(C) doubled (D) reduced to zero
33. Ferrites are the materials, which are not characterized by
(A) negative electrical conductivity
(B) rectangular shaped hysteresis loop
(C) high Joule’s heating on current flow
(D) two sub-lattices with unequal and opposite magnetic moments
34. To shield an instrument from the external magnetic field, it may be placed in the cabinet made
of
(A) wood (B) ebonite
(C) metal (D) diamagnetic substance
35. In a region where electric field is 5 N/C, 40 lines of electric force are crossing per m2. The number
of lines crossing per m2, where the electric field intensity is 10 N/C will be
(A) 20 (B) 80
(C) 100 (D) 200
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36. The length of the metre stick moving parallel to its length, when its mass is 1.5 times its rest
mass, is
(A) 150 cm (B) 66.7 cm
(C) 75 cm (D) 125 cm
37. The planets revolving around the sun in the solar system obey the law, relating their time
period of revolution and average radius of orbit, expressed as :
(A) T ∝r3 (B) T2 ∝r3
(C) T2 ∝r5 (D) T ∝r
38. The aircraft at take off stage is an example of
(A) Inertial reference frame (B) Non-inertial reference frame
(C) Universal reference frame (D) Fictitious reference frame
39. The radius of carbon atom in the diamond crystal structure having cubic unit cell edge
16 3 nm is
(A) 6 nm (B) 8 nm
(C) 16 3 nm (D) 8 3 nm
40. The continuous component X-ray spectrum owes its origin to
(A) Photoelectric effect (B) Bremmstahlung
(C) Pair production (D) Compton effect
41. The well defined wave function must not be
(A) single valued
(B) continuous w.r.t. space coordinates
(C) obeying the principle of superposition
(D) always a real function
42. The moving particle confined in an infinite potential well is not characterised by which of the
following ?
(A) quantized negative energy states
(B) ground state not the state of rest
(C) quantized wavefunctions defining different probability distribution for the particle
(D) quantized positive energy states
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43. Which of the following energy terms does not contribute in the binding energy formula derived
using liquid drop model for nucleus ?
(A) Surface energy (B) Asymmetry energy
(C) Heisenberg Exchange energy (D) Coulomb’s energy
44. For the alpha decay from natural radionuclides, which of the following observations does not
hold true ?
(A) The emission of alpha particle takes place following tunnelling of barrier
(B) The energetic alpha particles are emitted by radionuclide with shorter half life
(C) The energy required by alpha particle to penetrate a radionuclide is much smaller than the kinetic
energy of alpha particle emitted by that radionuclide
(D) The alpha decaying radionuclides have mass number greater than 200
45. Which of the following properties is not associated with the neutrino particle ?
(A) nearly zero mass (B) no charge
(C) integral spin (D) spin = 1/2
46. A radioactive specimen, consisting of 10000 active atoms, has a half life of 1 hour. How many
radioactive atoms will be left in the specimen after a duration of 3 hours ?
(A) 1250 (B) 5000
(C) 2500 (D) 7500
47. A radionuclide, with mass number A and Atomic number Z, undergoes positron decay. The product
will be characterized by
(A) Mass number = A, Atomic number = Z – 1
(B) Mass number = A, Atomic number = Z + 1
(C) Mass number = A + 1, Atomic number = Z – 1
(D) Mass number = A – 1, Atomic number = Z – 1
48. Which of the following does not support the shell structure of the nucleus ?
(A) Extra stability for nuclei with proton or/and neutron number equal to one of the magic numbers
(B) Low natural abundance of nuclei with proton or/and neutron number equal to one of the magic
numbers
(C) Nuclei with proton or/and numbers equal to magic numbers are spherical in shape
(D) Nuclei, with proton or/and neutron numbers equal to one of the magic numbers, have large number
of isotopes
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49. Quadrupole moment of a doubly magic nucleus is always
(A) positive but small (B) negative but large
(C) zero (D) positive and large
50. The radius of 8Be4 nucleus is 2.4 fm. The radius of 27Al13 nucleus will be
(A) 4.8 fm (B) 3.6 fm
(C) 3.0 fm (D) 4.2 fm
51. Which of the following is not a natural radioactive series ?
(A) Uranium Series (B) Thorium Series
(C) Actinium Series (D) Lead Series
52. The kinetic energy of each of the electron and positron generated in the pair production of
1.522 MeV will be
(A) 0.756 MeV (B) 200 keV
(C) 400 keV (D) 150 keV
53. A photon of 45 picometre wavelength undergoes scattering by loosely bound electron nearly at
rest. The maximum wavelength of the scattered photon will be
(A) 40.2 picometre (B) 35.2 picometre
(C) 49.8 picometre (D) 48.2 picometre
54. Which of the following phenomena are not explicable using wave nature of light ?
(A) photoelectric effect (B) Doppler effect
(C) Compton effect (D) Gravitational red shift
55. The photoelectric emission of K-shell electron, with binding energy of 3.2 eV, is caused by a
6.5 keV photon. The kinetic energy of emitted electron is
(A) 9.7 keV (B) 4.85 keV
(C) 3.3 keV (D) 3.2 keV
56. The atomic packing fraction of face-centred cubic is
(A)
3 2
(B)
(C) (D)
2
3
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57. Number of atoms per unit cell in case of body-centred cubic is
(A) 2 (B) 1
(C) 3 (D) 4
58. For the van der Waal’s force, the dependence of the interaction energy on distance r is proportional
to
(A) ~ r–6 (B) ~ r–7
(C) ~ r–3 (D) ~ r–2
59. A 214Pb (Z = 82) nucleus decays via two – decays and one alpha decay, the resulting nucleus is
(A) 210Pb (B) 210Bi
(C) 210Au (D) 210Pt
60. Miller indices of the plane parallel to the x-axis and y-axis are
(A) (0, 0, 1) (B) (1, 0, 0)
(C) (0, 1, 0) (D) (1, 1, 0)
61. In case of a system of identical, indistinguishable particles obeying Pauli exclusion principle,
the number of particles in each state at the temperature T is proportional to (k is Boltzmann
constant and f is the Fermi energy)
exp[( ) /(AkT) ] 1
1
f −(B) exp[( ) / kT] 1
1
f −−
(C) 1 exp[( ) / kT]
1
f −−(D) exp[ / kT] 1
1
62. The range of strong interactions is
(A) ~ 10–15 m (B) ~ 10–12 m
(C) ~ 10–10 m (D) ~ 10–13 m
63. In an p-type Silicon, which of the following statements is true ?
(A) Electrons are majority carriers and pentavalent atoms are the dopants
(B) Electrons are majority carriers and pentavalent Atoms are dopants
(C) Electrons are minority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants
(D) Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants
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64. In full wave rectifier with input frequency of 50 Hz, the frequency of the output is
(A) 50 Hz (B) 100 Hz
(C) 150 Hz (D) 200 Hz
65. For a transistor amplifier, the voltage gain
(A) remains constant for all frequencies
(B) is high at high and low frequencies and constant in the middle frequencies
(C) is low at high and low frequencies, and constant middle frequencies
(D) is continuously decreasing with frequency
66. In case of the transistor connected in the common emitter configuration, the input resistance is
defined as ratio of
(A) change in VCE and to change in VBE, with IB kept constant
(B) change in VCE and to change in IC, with IB kept constant
(C) change in VBE and to change in VCE, IB with kept constant
(D) change in IB and to change in VBE, with VCE kept constant
67. Two amplifiers are connected one after the other in series. The first amplifier has a voltage gain
of A1 and the second has a voltage gain of A2. The overall gain of the combination will be
(A) A1A2 (B) A1 + A2
(C) A1 – A2 (D) A1/A2
68. The least preferred principal crystal structures for the metallic crystals is
(A) Simple cubic (B) Body centred cubic
(C) Face centred cubic (D) Hexagonal
69. The base of an npn transistor is
(A) heavily doped (B) lightly doped
(C) metallic (D) Doped by pentavalent material
70. A reverse voltage of 10 V is applied across a Si diode. The magnitude of voltage across the depletion
layer will be
(A) 0 V (B) ~ 0.7 V
(C) ~ 10 V (D) ~ 1.1 V
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71. The thermally generated electrons and holes acquire sufficient energy from the applied
potential to produce new carriers by removing valence electrons from their bonds. These new
carriers in turn produce additional carriers again through the process of disrupting bonds. The
cumulative process is referred to as
(A) Avalanche breakdown (B) Zener breakdown
(C) Avalanche multiplication (D) Zener multiplication
72. The basic Collpitts oscillators uses
(A) two inductor and one capacitors (B) one inductor and two capacitors
(C) two capacitors (D) Tickler coil
73. The light emitted diodes consist of
(A) GaAs (B) GalnP
(C) GaAllnP (D) InAs
74. VLSI circuits are integrated circuits having
(A) more than 10 gates (B) more than 1000 gates
(C) more than 100 gates (D) no gate
75. The Michelson-Morley experiment was performed with object to study
(A) Presence of hypothetical medium ether
(B) To study the variation of speed of light in different medium
(C) To study variation of speed of light along different directions in space
(D) It was a sophisticated optical experiment to study the orbital velocity of earth
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